Unit 6, lesson 35

Convolution and Linear-System Response

How causal convolution adds up past inputs, why the convolution theorem turns it into a product of Laplace transforms, how the impulse-response kernel gives the zero-state response, and where Volterra integral equations come from.

  • Video 35
  • Convolution, Impulses and Transfer Functions

Dye trickles into a tank while an outlet slowly washes it out. The amount in the tank now depends on everything that has flowed in so far, each earlier portion weighted by how much of it is still left. Convolution writes that bookkeeping as one integral over the past. This lesson defines causal convolution, shows why the Laplace transform turns it into a product, computes a zero-state response in two independent ways and rewrites the same problem as an integral equation. Throughout, t≥0t \ge 0 is time and a prime means a derivative with respect to tt.

Key terms

Causal convolution

Definition Let ff and gg be piecewise continuous on [0,∞)[0, \infty). Their causal convolution is the function defined for t≥0t \ge 0 by

(f∗g)(t)=∫0tf(t−τ) g(τ) dτ.\begin{aligned} &(f * g)(t) \\[0.4em] &\quad = \int_0^t f(t - \tau)\,g(\tau)\,d\tau. \end{aligned}

Only the values of gg on [0,t][0, t] enter, so the convolution at time tt never uses the future. It is the convolution over the whole real line of the two functions after both are set to zero for negative times, which is what causal means here. The substitution σ=t−τ\sigma = t - \tau shows that f∗g=g∗ff * g = g * f, and the operation is linear in each factor. It is not the pointwise product f(t)g(t)f(t)g(t).

In plain words To find the effect at time tt, take every earlier time τ\tau, weight the input g(τ)g(\tau) by the value of ff at the elapsed time t−τt - \tau, and add up the contributions from time 00 to now.

Example For f(t)=tf(t) = t and g(t)=1g(t) = 1,

(f∗g)(t)=∫0t(t−τ) dτ=t22,\begin{aligned} (f * g)(t) &= \int_0^t (t - \tau)\,d\tau \\[0.4em] &= \frac{t^2}{2}, \end{aligned}

and the other order gives ∫0t1⋅τ dτ=t2/2\int_0^t 1 \cdot \tau\,d\tau = t^2/2 as well. With f=g=1f = g = 1 the convolution is ∫0tdτ=t\int_0^t d\tau = t, while the pointwise product is 11. Convolution builds a new function of time out of the whole past, not a product of current values.

Convolution theorem

Definition Let ff and gg be piecewise continuous on [0,∞)[0, \infty) and of exponential order aa, with Laplace transforms FF and GG. Then for every complex ss with Re⁡s>a\operatorname{Re} s > a the Laplace transform of f∗gf * g exists and

L{f∗g}(s)=F(s) G(s).\mathcal{L}\{f * g\}(s) = F(s)\,G(s).

To see why, write L{f∗g}(s)\mathcal{L}\{f * g\}(s) as a double integral over the region 0≤τ≤t0 \le \tau \le t and replace the observation time tt by τ+σ\tau + \sigma, where σ=t−τ≥0\sigma = t - \tau \ge 0 is the elapsed time. The weight splits as e−st=e−sτe−sσe^{-st} = e^{-s\tau}e^{-s\sigma}, and the double integral separates into the integral of e−sτg(τ)e^{-s\tau}g(\tau) times the integral of e−sσf(σ)e^{-s\sigma}f(\sigma), each over [0,∞)[0, \infty). Changing the order of integration is allowed because for Re⁡s>a\operatorname{Re} s > a the double integral of the absolute values is finite. Read backward, the theorem says L−1{FG}=f∗g\mathcal{L}^{-1}\{FG\} = f * g, which inverts a product without partial fractions. There is no such rule for the pointwise product, and L{fg}\mathcal{L}\{fg\} is in general not FGFG.

In plain words Adding up weighted past inputs in time becomes plain multiplication in the variable ss. A response that needs an integral in time needs only a product after the Laplace transform.

Example For f(t)=etf(t) = e^{t} and g(t)=e2tg(t) = e^{2t},

(f∗g)(t)=∫0tet−τe2τ dτ=et(et−1)=e2t−et.\begin{aligned} (f * g)(t) &= \int_0^t e^{t - \tau}e^{2\tau}\,d\tau \\[0.4em] &= e^{t}\left(e^{t} - 1\right) \\[0.4em] &= e^{2t} - e^{t}. \end{aligned}

Both functions are of exponential order 22. For Re⁡s>2\operatorname{Re} s > 2 the Laplace transform of the result is

1s−2−1s−1=1(s−1)(s−2),\begin{aligned} &\frac{1}{s - 2} - \frac{1}{s - 1} \\[0.4em] &\quad = \frac{1}{(s - 1)(s - 2)}, \end{aligned}

which is exactly the product of F(s)=1/(s−1)F(s) = 1/(s - 1) and G(s)=1/(s−2)G(s) = 1/(s - 2).

Impulse-response kernel

Definition Consider a linear equation with constant coefficients,

any(n)+⋯+a1y′+a0y=f(t),an≠0,\begin{aligned} &a_n y^{(n)} + \cdots + a_1 y' + a_0 y \\[0.4em] &\quad = f(t), \qquad a_n \ne 0, \end{aligned}

with input ff and characteristic polynomial p(s)=ansn+⋯+a1s+a0p(s) = a_n s^n + \cdots + a_1 s + a_0. Its impulse-response kernel is the function hh on [0,∞)[0, \infty) whose Laplace transform is

H(s)=1p(s).H(s) = \frac{1}{p(s)}.

Equivalently, hh is the solution of the homogeneous equation with h(0)=h′(0)=⋯=h(n−2)(0)=0h(0) = h'(0) = \cdots = h^{(n-2)}(0) = 0 and h(n−1)(0)=1/anh^{(n-1)}(0) = 1/a_n. For a first-order equation this simply means h(0)=1/a1h(0) = 1/a_1. The kernel depends only on the equation, not on the input. It is the response to a unit impulse at time 00 of the system at rest just before that instant, which explains its name. Inside a convolution, h(t−τ)h(t - \tau) is the weight that an input arriving at time τ\tau still carries at the later time tt.

In plain words The kernel is the memory of the system. Its value at the elapsed time t−τt - \tau says how much of one unit of input delivered at time τ\tau is still felt at time tt.

Example For y′+2y=fy' + 2y = f the characteristic polynomial is s+2s + 2, so h(t)=e−2th(t) = e^{-2t}, and indeed h(0)=1h(0) = 1. Input that arrived one time unit ago still counts with the weight e−2≈0.135e^{-2} \approx 0.135, and input from two units ago with e−4≈0.018e^{-4} \approx 0.018, so this system forgets quickly. For y′′+y=fy'' + y = f the kernel is h(t)=sin⁡th(t) = \sin t, with h(0)=0h(0) = 0 and h′(0)=1h'(0) = 1. These weights never fade, and an undamped oscillator keeps every past input in its motion.

Zero-state response

Definition For the equation above, the zero-state response to an input ff is the solution with zero initial values, y(0)=y′(0)=⋯=y(n−1)(0)=0y(0) = y'(0) = \cdots = y^{(n-1)}(0) = 0. The system starts at rest, so everything it does is caused by the input. For every ff that is piecewise continuous on [0,∞)[0, \infty),

yzs(t)=(h∗f)(t)=∫0th(t−τ) f(τ) dτ.\begin{aligned} &y_{\mathrm{zs}}(t) = (h * f)(t) \\[0.4em] &\quad = \int_0^t h(t - \tau)\,f(\tau)\,d\tau. \end{aligned}

When ff is of exponential order, the Laplace transform of the equation with zero initial values is p(s)Y=Fp(s)Y = F, so Y=HFY = HF, and the convolution theorem gives the formula. For a general piecewise continuous ff it still holds, because neither side at time tt depends on the input after time tt. With nonzero initial values the solution is y=yzi+yzsy = y_{\mathrm{zi}} + y_{\mathrm{zs}}, where the zero-input response yziy_{\mathrm{zi}} solves the homogeneous equation with the given initial values.

In plain words Start the system at rest, feed it the input, and add up the weighted past. Whatever the system would do on its own from a nonzero start is a separate term.

Example Take y′+2y=3y' + 2y = 3 with y(0)=0y(0) = 0, so h(t)=e−2th(t) = e^{-2t} and f=3f = 3. The convolution is

y(t)=∫0t3e−2(t−τ) dτ=32(1−e−2t).\begin{aligned} y(t) &= \int_0^t 3e^{-2(t - \tau)}\,d\tau \\[0.4em] &= \tfrac{3}{2}\left(1 - e^{-2t}\right). \end{aligned}

The Laplace route agrees. Here H(s)=1/(s+2)H(s) = 1/(s + 2) and F(s)=3/sF(s) = 3/s, and partial fractions give

Y(s)=3s(s+2)=3/2s−3/2s+2.\begin{aligned} Y(s) &= \frac{3}{s(s + 2)} \\[0.4em] &= \frac{3/2}{s} - \frac{3/2}{s + 2}. \end{aligned}

Substituting back, y′=3e−2ty' = 3e^{-2t} and y′+2y=3y' + 2y = 3, with y(0)=0y(0) = 0. The response levels off at 32\tfrac{3}{2}, where 2y=32y = 3 balances the input. If instead y(0)=1y(0) = 1, the zero-input response e−2te^{-2t} is added, and the solution becomes y=32−12e−2ty = \tfrac{3}{2} - \tfrac{1}{2}e^{-2t}.

Volterra integral equation

Definition A linear Volterra integral equation of the second kind for an unknown function yy on [0,∞)[0, \infty) has the form

y(t)=g(t)+∫0tk(t,τ) y(τ) dτ,\begin{aligned} &y(t) = g(t) \\[0.4em] &\quad + \int_0^t k(t, \tau)\,y(\tau)\,d\tau, \end{aligned}

with a given function gg and a given kernel kk. The upper limit is the current time, so the present value of yy is fixed by its own past. If gg is continuous on [0,∞)[0, \infty) and kk is continuous for 0≤τ≤t0 \le \tau \le t, the equation has exactly one continuous solution. When the kernel depends only on the elapsed time, k(t,τ)=k(t−τ)k(t, \tau) = k(t - \tau), the integral is the causal convolution k∗yk * y. The convolution theorem then turns the equation into Y=G+KYY = G + KY, so Y=G/(1−K)Y = G/(1 - K) wherever these Laplace transforms exist and K(s)≠1K(s) \ne 1. Integrating an initial-value problem from 00 to tt produces such an equation, with the initial values built into gg.

In plain words Instead of saying how fast yy changes, a Volterra equation says what yy is now in terms of everything it has been. A derivative looks at the present instant, while the integral looks back over the whole past.

Example Integrate y′+2y=3y' + 2y = 3 from 00 to tt. The first term gives y(t)−y(0)y(t) - y(0), which is y(t)y(t) when y(0)=0y(0) = 0, so

y(t)=3t−2∫0ty(τ) dτ.y(t) = 3t - 2\int_0^t y(\tau)\,d\tau.

Here g(t)=3tg(t) = 3t and k=−2k = -2. Taking Laplace transforms gives Y=3/s2−2Y/sY = 3/s^2 - 2Y/s, so (1+2/s)Y=3/s2(1 + 2/s)Y = 3/s^2 and Y=3/(s(s+2))Y = 3/(s(s + 2)), the same as before. Conversely, if yy is a continuous solution, the right side is differentiable, so yy is too. Differentiating gives y′=3−2yy' = 3 - 2y, and setting t=0t = 0 gives y(0)=0y(0) = 0. The integral equation therefore carries both the differential equation and its initial value, and its solution is again 32(1−e−2t)\tfrac{3}{2}(1 - e^{-2t}).

Check yourself

  1. Find the zero-state response of y′′+y=1y'' + y = 1 by convolution, and check it.
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The kernel is h(t)=sin⁡th(t) = \sin t and the input is f=1f = 1, so

y(t)=∫0tsin⁡(t−τ) dτ=[cos⁡(t−τ)]τ=0τ=t=1−cos⁡t.\begin{aligned} y(t) &= \int_0^t \sin(t - \tau)\,d\tau \\[0.4em] &= \Bigl[\cos(t - \tau)\Bigr]_{\tau = 0}^{\tau = t} \\[0.4em] &= 1 - \cos t. \end{aligned}

As a check, y′=sin⁡ty' = \sin t and y′′=cos⁡ty'' = \cos t, so y′′+y=cos⁡t+1−cos⁡t=1y'' + y = \cos t + 1 - \cos t = 1, with y(0)=0y(0) = 0 and y′(0)=0y'(0) = 0. The Laplace route gives the same result, since 1s2+1⋅1s=1s−ss2+1\frac{1}{s^2 + 1} \cdot \frac{1}{s} = \frac{1}{s} - \frac{s}{s^2 + 1}.

  1. A classmate claims that L{t e−t}\mathcal{L}\{t\,e^{-t}\} equals 1/(s2(s+1))1/(s^2(s + 1)), because L{t}=1/s2\mathcal{L}\{t\} = 1/s^2 and L{e−t}=1/(s+1)\mathcal{L}\{e^{-t}\} = 1/(s + 1). What is wrong, and which function does have this Laplace transform?
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A product of Laplace transforms belongs to the convolution, not to the pointwise product. Directly from the definition, L{t e−t}(s)=∫0∞t e−(s+1)t dt\mathcal{L}\{t\,e^{-t}\}(s) = \int_0^\infty t\,e^{-(s + 1)t}\,dt is L{t}\mathcal{L}\{t\} evaluated at s+1s + 1, so

L{t e−t}=1(s+1)2,Re⁡s>−1.\begin{gathered} \mathcal{L}\{t\,e^{-t}\} = \frac{1}{(s + 1)^2}, \\[0.4em] \operatorname{Re} s > -1. \end{gathered}

The product 1/(s2(s+1))1/(s^2(s + 1)) is the Laplace transform of the convolution of tt with e−te^{-t},

∫0t(t−τ) e−τ dτ=t−1+e−t,\begin{aligned} &\int_0^t (t - \tau)\,e^{-\tau}\,d\tau \\[0.4em] &\quad = t - 1 + e^{-t}, \end{aligned}

in agreement with the partial fractions −1/s+1/s2+1/(s+1)-1/s + 1/s^2 + 1/(s + 1). The two candidates really differ. At s=1s = 1, for example, they equal 14\tfrac{1}{4} and 12\tfrac{1}{2}.

  1. Solve the Volterra integral equation y(t)=1+∫0t(t−τ) y(τ) dτy(t) = 1 + \int_0^t (t - \tau)\,y(\tau)\,d\tau for t≥0t \ge 0.
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The kernel t−τt - \tau depends only on the elapsed time, so the integral is the convolution of tt with yy. With L{t}=1/s2\mathcal{L}\{t\} = 1/s^2 the Laplace transform of the equation is Y=1/s+Y/s2Y = 1/s + Y/s^2, so (1−1/s2)Y=1/s(1 - 1/s^2)Y = 1/s and

Y(s)=ss2−1,Y(s) = \frac{s}{s^2 - 1},

which is the Laplace transform of cosh⁡t\cosh t for Re⁡s>1\operatorname{Re} s > 1. So y(t)=cosh⁡ty(t) = \cosh t. As a check, integration by parts gives ∫0t(t−τ)cosh⁡τ dτ=cosh⁡t−1\int_0^t (t - \tau)\cosh\tau\,d\tau = \cosh t - 1, so the right side equals 1+cosh⁡t−1=cosh⁡t1 + \cosh t - 1 = \cosh t. Differentiating the equation twice gives the same answer another way, since it yields y′′=yy'' = y with y(0)=1y(0) = 1 and y′(0)=0y'(0) = 0.

How this lesson connects