Unit 11, lesson 65

Green's Functions and the Fredholm Alternative

How a Green's function solves a boundary-value problem as an integral kernel, why its slope jumps at the source, and how the Fredholm alternative and its compatibility condition handle an eigenvalue obstruction.

  • Video 65
  • Sturm-Liouville Theory and Green's Functions

A taut string of unit tension is fixed at both ends of [0,1][0, 1] and pushed sideways by a load f(x)f(x), so its displacement solves −y′′=f-y'' = f with y(0)=y(1)=0y(0) = y(1) = 0. Here xx is position along the string and a prime means d/dxd/dx. If you knew the shape the string takes under a unit point load at each location ss, could you add those shapes to get the response to any load? When the unloaded problem has only the zero solution the answer is yes, and that shape is the Green’s function, an integral kernel that builds the equation and both boundary conditions into one solution formula. This lesson constructs it, checks the jump in slope at the source, and uses the Fredholm alternative to settle what happens when the homogeneous problem has a nonzero solution and no such kernel exists.

Key terms

Green’s function

Definition Let pp be continuously differentiable with p>0p > 0 on [a,b][a, b], let qq be continuous and real there, and consider the boundary-value problem

Ly=−(p y′)′+q y=fLy = -(p\,y')' + q\,y = f

on [a,b][a, b] with the real separated boundary conditions

α0 y(a)+β0 y′(a)=0,α1 y(b)+β1 y′(b)=0,\begin{gathered} \alpha_0\,y(a) + \beta_0\,y'(a) = 0, \\[0.4em] \alpha_1\,y(b) + \beta_1\,y'(b) = 0, \end{gathered}

where (α0,β0)≠(0,0)(\alpha_0, \beta_0) \ne (0, 0) and (α1,β1)≠(0,0)(\alpha_1, \beta_1) \ne (0, 0). Assume that the homogeneous problem, with f=0f = 0, has only the solution y=0y = 0. The Green’s function of the problem is the function G(x,s)G(x, s) on the square [a,b]×[a,b][a, b] \times [a, b] such that for each source point ss in (a,b)(a, b) the function x↦G(x,s)x \mapsto G(x, s)

  • solves LG=0LG = 0 on [a,s)[a, s) and on (s,b](s, b],
  • satisfies both boundary conditions,
  • is continuous at x=sx = s,
  • has the slope jump Gx(s+,s)−Gx(s−,s)=−1/p(s)G_x(s^+, s) - G_x(s^-, s) = -1/p(s).

Here GxG_x is the partial derivative in xx, and Gx(s±,s)G_x(s^\pm, s) are its limits as x→sx \to s from the right and from the left. These conditions determine GG uniquely, and GG is symmetric, G(x,s)=G(s,x)G(x, s) = G(s, x). To build it, take a nonzero solution y1y_1 of Ly=0Ly = 0 that satisfies the condition at aa and a nonzero solution y2y_2 that satisfies the condition at bb. By Abel’s identity the number c=p (y1′y2−y1y2′)c = p\,(y_1'y_2 - y_1y_2') is a constant. It is not zero, because otherwise y1y_1 and y2y_2 would be multiples of each other and y1y_1 would be a nonzero solution of the homogeneous problem. For x≤sx \le s the Green’s function is

G(x,s)=y1(x) y2(s)c,G(x, s) = \frac{y_1(x)\,y_2(s)}{c},

and for x≥sx \ge s it is G(x,s)=y1(s) y2(x)/cG(x, s) = y_1(s)\,y_2(x)/c.

In plain words The Green’s function is the response of the boundary problem to a unit point source at ss. Away from the source it solves the unforced equation, at the ends it obeys the boundary conditions, and at the source its graph has a corner but no break.

Example For −y′′=f-y'' = f on [0,1][0, 1] with y(0)=y(1)=0y(0) = y(1) = 0, the coefficients are p=1p = 1 and q=0q = 0. Away from ss the kernel has zero second derivative, so each branch is a straight line. The left branch must vanish at 00 and the right branch at 11, so they are AxAx and B(1−x)B(1 - x). Continuity at ss gives As=B(1−s)As = B(1 - s), and the jump condition gives −B−A=−1-B - A = -1. Solving, A=1−sA = 1 - s and B=sB = s, so

G(x,s)=x(1−s),x≤s,G(x,s)=s(1−x),x≥s.\begin{gathered} G(x, s) = x(1 - s), \quad x \le s, \\[0.4em] G(x, s) = s(1 - x), \quad x \ge s. \end{gathered}

The formula gives the same kernel with y1=xy_1 = x, y2=1−xy_2 = 1 - x and c=1⋅(1−x)−x⋅(−1)=1c = 1 \cdot (1 - x) - x \cdot (-1) = 1. The graph is a tent with its peak s(1−s)s(1 - s) at the source, and exchanging xx and ss exchanges the two branches, which is the symmetry.

Integral kernel

Definition An integral operator with kernel K(x,s)K(x, s) sends a continuous function ff on [a,b][a, b] to the function

x↦∫abK(x,s) f(s) ds.x \mapsto \int_a^b K(x, s)\,f(s)\,ds.

Under the hypotheses of the previous card, for every continuous ff on [a,b][a, b] the boundary-value problem Ly=fLy = f has exactly one solution, and it is

y(x)=∫abG(x,s) f(s) ds.y(x) = \int_a^b G(x, s)\,f(s)\,ds.

So the Green’s function is the kernel of the inverse of LL together with its boundary conditions. It belongs to one operator, one interval and one complete set of boundary conditions, and changing any of them changes the kernel. A boundary kernel collects sources from both sides of xx. The kernel of an initial-value problem, as in convolution, is causal. It uses only earlier times and gives the solution with zero initial data, which in general does not satisfy a condition at the far end.

In plain words Split the load into many small pieces. The piece near ss has strength f(s) dsf(s)\,ds and produces the response G(x,s) f(s) dsG(x, s)\,f(s)\,ds at xx, and linearity lets you add all these responses. Once the kernel is known, a new load needs only a new integral, not a new boundary calculation.

Example Solve −y′′=2-y'' = 2 on [0,1][0, 1] with y(0)=y(1)=0y(0) = y(1) = 0 using the tent kernel. The kernel changes formula at s=xs = x, so split the integral there. Sources with s≤xs \le x use s(1−x)s(1 - x), and sources with s≥xs \ge x use x(1−s)x(1 - s), so

y=2(1−x)∫0xs ds+2x∫x1(1−s) ds=x2(1−x)+x(1−x)2.\begin{aligned} y &= 2(1 - x)\int_0^x s\,ds \\[0.4em] &\quad + 2x\int_x^1 (1 - s)\,ds \\[0.4em] &= x^2(1 - x) + x(1 - x)^2. \end{aligned}

Factoring out x(1−x)x(1 - x) leaves x+(1−x)=1x + (1 - x) = 1, so y=x(1−x)y = x(1 - x). As a check, y′′=−2y'' = -2, so −y′′=2-y'' = 2, and y(0)=y(1)=0y(0) = y(1) = 0.

Jump condition at the source

Definition For Ly=−(p y′)′+q yLy = -(p\,y')' + q\,y, the Green’s function satisfies, at each source point ss in (a,b)(a, b),

G(s+,s)=G(s−,s),Gx(s+,s)−Gx(s−,s)=−1p(s).\begin{aligned} &G(s^+, s) = G(s^-, s), \\[0.4em] &G_x(s^+, s) - G_x(s^-, s) \\[0.2em] &\qquad = -\frac{1}{p(s)}. \end{aligned}

Formally GG solves LG=δ(x−s)LG = \delta(x - s), where the delta is a distribution, a unit point source, and not an ordinary function with one exceptional value. The four conditions of the first card are the precise meaning of this equation. Integrating it over [s−ε,s+ε][s - \varepsilon, s + \varepsilon] gives

−[p Gx]x=s−εx=s+ε+∫s−εs+εq G dx=1.\begin{aligned} &-\big[p\,G_x\big]_{x = s - \varepsilon}^{x = s + \varepsilon} \\[0.4em] &\quad + \int_{s - \varepsilon}^{s + \varepsilon} q\,G\,dx = 1. \end{aligned}

As ε→0\varepsilon \to 0 the integral of the bounded function qGqG tends to 00, and what remains is −p(s)-p(s) times the jump in GxG_x, which must equal 11. The sign comes from the operator. For the opposite operator (p y′)′−q y(p\,y')' - q\,y the jump is +1/p(s)+1/p(s) and the Green’s function is −G-G.

In plain words A point source cannot break the graph, but it bends it sharply. The size of the kink is fixed by the strength of the source and by pp at the source, and whether the slope drops or rises depends on the sign in front of the second derivative.

Example For the tent kernel, both branches equal s(1−s)s(1 - s) at x=sx = s. The slope is 1−s1 - s on the left and −s-s on the right, so the right slope minus the left slope is −s−(1−s)=−1-s - (1 - s) = -1, which is −1/p-1/p with p=1p = 1. A slope that drops by 11 is exactly what −d2/dx2-d^2/dx^2 turns into a positive unit source. For y′′=fy'' = f with the same boundary conditions the kernel is −G-G, whose slope rises by 11 at the source, and for f=2f = 2 it gives y=−x(1−x)=x2−xy = -x(1 - x) = x^2 - x, which indeed has y′′=2y'' = 2.

Eigenvalue obstruction

Definition Suppose the homogeneous problem Lφ=0L\varphi = 0 with the same boundary conditions has a nonzero solution φ\varphi. If yy solves Ly=fLy = f with the boundary conditions, then so does y+Cφy + C\varphi for every constant CC, since adding CφC\varphi changes neither the equation nor the boundary values. Solutions, when they exist, are therefore never unique, so the problem has no inverse and no Green’s function. The construction of the first card breaks down as well, because y1y_1 and y2y_2 are then both multiples of φ\varphi and c=0c = 0. For an eigenvalue problem −(p y′)′+q y=λw y-(p\,y')' + q\,y = \lambda w\,y with a continuous weight w>0w > 0 and a real λ\lambda, the problem −(p y′)′+q y−λw y=f-(p\,y')' + q\,y - \lambda w\,y = f has a Green’s function exactly when λ\lambda is not an eigenvalue. When λ\lambda is an eigenvalue, its eigenfunctions are the nonzero solutions φ\varphi.

In plain words A Green’s function is an inverse, and an inverse cannot exist when some nonzero shape is invisible to the problem. That shape, a solution of the homogeneous problem, can be added to any solution without changing the forcing or the boundary values.

Example For −y′′−k2y=f-y'' - k^2y = f on [0,1][0, 1] with y(0)=y(1)=0y(0) = y(1) = 0 and k>0k > 0, take y1=sin⁡kxy_1 = \sin kx and y2=sin⁡k(1−x)y_2 = \sin k(1 - x). Then c=ksin⁡kc = k\sin k, and

G(x,s)=sin⁡kx sin⁡k(1−s)ksin⁡kG(x, s) = \frac{\sin kx\,\sin k(1 - s)}{k\sin k}

for x≤sx \le s, with xx and ss exchanged for x≥sx \ge s. This kernel exists whenever sin⁡k≠0\sin k \ne 0, and letting k→0k \to 0 recovers the tent kernel x(1−s)x(1 - s). As kk approaches π\pi the denominator tends to 00, and the kernel blows up at every pair x,sx, s in (0,1)(0, 1). At k=πk = \pi the function φ=sin⁡πx\varphi = \sin \pi x solves the homogeneous problem, so λ=π2\lambda = \pi^2 is an eigenvalue of −y′′=λy-y'' = \lambda y with these conditions, and no Green’s function exists. The same happens at every k=nπk = n\pi.

Fredholm alternative

Definition Let LL and the separated boundary conditions be as in the first card, and let ff be continuous on [a,b][a, b]. Exactly one of two cases holds.

In the first case the homogeneous problem has only the zero solution. Then for every continuous ff the problem Ly=fLy = f has exactly one solution, given by the Green’s function.

In the second case the homogeneous problem has a nonzero solution φ\varphi. The condition at aa alone leaves only multiples of one solution of Ly=0Ly = 0, so every solution of the homogeneous problem is a multiple of φ\varphi. The problem Ly=fLy = f has a solution if and only if

∫abf(x) φ(x) dx=0,\int_a^b f(x)\,\varphi(x)\,dx = 0,

and then the solutions are exactly yp+Cφy_p + C\varphi, for one particular solution ypy_p and every constant CC. When the integral is not zero there is no solution. The same statement holds for −(p y′)′+q y−λw y=f-(p\,y')' + q\,y - \lambda w\,y = f with a real λ\lambda, since that is the same kind of problem with qq replaced by q−λwq - \lambda w. The test function is φ\varphi itself because real separated conditions make the problem self-adjoint. For a problem that is not self-adjoint the test functions come from an adjoint problem instead.

In plain words A linear boundary problem of this kind has only two possible behaviors. Either every forcing gives exactly one solution, or the homogeneous problem has a free shape, and then each forcing gives either no solution or a whole line of solutions. A problem that is solvable for every forcing but without uniqueness, or unique but not solvable for some forcing, does not occur here.

Example Take −y′′−π2y=f-y'' - \pi^2y = f on [0,1][0, 1] with y(0)=y(1)=0y(0) = y(1) = 0, so φ=sin⁡πx\varphi = \sin \pi x. The forcing cos⁡πx\cos \pi x passes the test, since ∫01cos⁡πx sin⁡πx dx=0\int_0^1 \cos \pi x\,\sin \pi x\,dx = 0. A particular solution is

yp=−xsin⁡πx2π.y_p = -\frac{x\sin \pi x}{2\pi}.

Its second derivative is yp′′=−cos⁡πx+π2xsin⁡πxy_p'' = -\cos \pi x + \tfrac{\pi}{2}x\sin \pi x, so −yp′′−π2yp=cos⁡πx-y_p'' - \pi^2y_p = \cos \pi x, and yp(0)=yp(1)=0y_p(0) = y_p(1) = 0. Every function yp+Csin⁡πxy_p + C\sin \pi x is a solution as well. The forcing sin⁡πx\sin \pi x fails the test, since ∫01sin⁡2πx dx=12\int_0^1 \sin^2 \pi x\,dx = \tfrac12, so that problem has no solution at all. An extra requirement such as ∫01y φ dx=0\int_0^1 y\,\varphi\,dx = 0 singles out the member with C=1/(4π)C = 1/(4\pi), which is (1−2x)sin⁡(πx)/(4π)(1 - 2x)\sin(\pi x)/(4\pi). That is a normalization added to the problem, not uniqueness of the original problem.

Fredholm compatibility condition

Definition In the second case of the Fredholm alternative, the requirement ∫abfφ dx=0\int_a^b f\varphi\,dx = 0 for a nonzero solution φ\varphi of the homogeneous problem is the Fredholm compatibility condition. It is then true for every such solution, since they are all multiples of φ\varphi. Its necessity comes from Lagrange’s identity, obtained by integrating by parts twice,

∫ab(φ Ly−y Lφ) dx=[p (yφ′−y′φ)]ab.\begin{aligned} &\int_a^b (\varphi\,Ly - y\,L\varphi)\,dx \\[0.4em] &\quad = \Big[p\,(y\varphi' - y'\varphi)\Big]_a^b. \end{aligned}

If yy and φ\varphi satisfy the same separated condition α y+β y′=0\alpha\,y + \beta\,y' = 0 at an endpoint, the vectors (y,y′)(y, y') and (φ,φ′)(\varphi, \varphi') there are both orthogonal to the nonzero vector (α,β)(\alpha, \beta). So they are parallel, and the bracket vanishes at that endpoint. With Ly=fLy = f and Lφ=0L\varphi = 0 the identity leaves ∫abfφ dx=0\int_a^b f\varphi\,dx = 0. For the eigenvalue form

−(p y′)′+q y−λw y=f,-(p\,y')' + q\,y - \lambda w\,y = f,

with λ\lambda an eigenvalue and φ\varphi an eigenfunction, the condition is still the unweighted integral ∫abfφ dx=0\int_a^b f\varphi\,dx = 0. If the forcing is written as f=w gf = w\,g, the same condition reads

⟨g,φ⟩w=∫abw g φ dx=0.\langle g, \varphi \rangle_w = \int_a^b w\,g\,\varphi\,dx = 0.

In plain words The forcing must have no component along the free shape. Which integral expresses this depends only on what you call the forcing. The test has no weight when the right side is called ff and carries the weight once when it is written as w gw\,g, and mixing the two conventions gives a wrong test.

Example Take p=w=exp = w = e^x and q=0q = 0 on [0,π][0, \pi] with y(0)=y(π)=0y(0) = y(\pi) = 0. As in regular Sturm-Liouville problems, the first eigenvalue is λ1=5/4\lambda_1 = 5/4 with eigenfunction φ1=e−x/2sin⁡x\varphi_1 = e^{-x/2}\sin x. Consider

−(exy′)′−54exy=exg,g=e−x/2sin⁡2x.\begin{gathered} -(e^x y')' - \tfrac54 e^x y = e^x g, \\[0.4em] g = e^{-x/2}\sin 2x. \end{gathered}

The weighted test gives ∫0πexg φ1 dx=∫0πsin⁡2x sin⁡x dx=0\int_0^\pi e^x g\,\varphi_1\,dx = \int_0^\pi \sin 2x\,\sin x\,dx = 0, so solutions exist. Substituting y=e−x/2vy = e^{-x/2}v turns the equation into −v′′−v=sin⁡2x-v'' - v = \sin 2x with v(0)=v(π)=0v(0) = v(\pi) = 0, and the solutions are

y=e−x/2(13sin⁡2x+Csin⁡x)y = e^{-x/2}\left(\tfrac13\sin 2x + C\sin x\right)

for every constant CC. The unweighted integral is not zero,

∫0πg φ1 dx=15(1+e−π)≈0.209,\begin{aligned} \int_0^\pi g\,\varphi_1\,dx &= \tfrac15\left(1 + e^{-\pi}\right) \\[0.4em] &\approx 0.209, \end{aligned}

so testing gg without the weight would wrongly declare the problem unsolvable.

Check yourself

  1. Use the tent kernel to solve −y′′=x-y'' = x on [0,1][0, 1] with y(0)=y(1)=0y(0) = y(1) = 0, and check the answer.
Show the answer

Split the integral at s=xs = x, using s(1−x)s(1 - x) for s≤xs \le x and x(1−s)x(1 - s) for s≥xs \ge x. Then

y(x)=(1−x)∫0xs2 ds+x∫x1(1−s) s ds=(1−x) x33+x(16−x22+x33)=x−x36.\begin{aligned} y(x) &= (1 - x)\int_0^x s^2\,ds \\[0.4em] &\quad + x\int_x^1 (1 - s)\,s\,ds \\[0.4em] &= \frac{(1 - x)\,x^3}{3} \\[0.4em] &\quad + x\left(\frac16 - \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{3}\right) \\[0.4em] &= \frac{x - x^3}{6}. \end{aligned}

As a check, y′′=−xy'' = -x, so −y′′=x-y'' = x, and y(0)=0y(0) = 0 and y(1)=(1−1)/6=0y(1) = (1 - 1)/6 = 0.

  1. For which constant cc does −y′′=x−c-y'' = x - c on [0,1][0, 1] with y′(0)=y′(1)=0y'(0) = y'(1) = 0 have a solution? Find all solutions for that cc, and explain why this problem has no Green’s function.
Show the answer

Every constant solves −y′′=0-y'' = 0 with y′(0)=y′(1)=0y'(0) = y'(1) = 0, so φ=1\varphi = 1 is a nonzero solution of the homogeneous problem. That is the eigenvalue obstruction, so there is no Green’s function. The compatibility condition is

∫01(x−c) dx=12−c=0,\int_0^1 (x - c)\,dx = \frac12 - c = 0,

so c=12c = \tfrac12. The same follows directly. Integrating the equation over [0,1][0, 1] gives y′(0)−y′(1)=12−cy'(0) - y'(1) = \tfrac12 - c, and the boundary conditions make the left side zero. For c=12c = \tfrac12, the equation y′′=12−xy'' = \tfrac12 - x gives y′=12x−12x2+C1y' = \tfrac12x - \tfrac12x^2 + C_1, and y′(0)=0y'(0) = 0 forces C1=0C_1 = 0. Then y′(1)=0y'(1) = 0 holds automatically, and the solutions are

y=x24−x36+Cy = \frac{x^2}{4} - \frac{x^3}{6} + C

for every constant CC, a whole line of solutions as the Fredholm alternative predicts.

  1. Construct the Green’s function of −y′′=f-y'' = f on [0,1][0, 1] with y(0)=0y(0) = 0 and y′(1)=0y'(1) = 0, and use it to solve the problem with f=1f = 1.
Show the answer

The homogeneous problem has only the zero solution, since y=A+Bxy = A + Bx with y(0)=0y(0) = 0 and y′(1)=0y'(1) = 0 forces A=B=0A = B = 0. So the Green’s function exists. The left branch is a line through the origin, AxAx, and the right branch is a line with zero slope at 11, a constant BB. Continuity gives As=BAs = B, and the jump condition gives 0−A=−10 - A = -1. So A=1A = 1 and B=sB = s, which means

G(x,s)={x,x≤s,s,x≥s,G(x, s) = \begin{cases} x, & x \le s, \\ s, & x \ge s, \end{cases}

that is, G(x,s)=min⁡(x,s)G(x, s) = \min(x, s). For f=1f = 1,

y(x)=∫0xs ds+∫x1x ds=x22+x(1−x)=x−x22.\begin{aligned} y(x) &= \int_0^x s\,ds + \int_x^1 x\,ds \\[0.4em] &= \frac{x^2}{2} + x(1 - x) \\[0.4em] &= x - \frac{x^2}{2}. \end{aligned}

As a check, −y′′=1-y'' = 1, y(0)=0y(0) = 0 and y′(1)=1−1=0y'(1) = 1 - 1 = 0.

How this lesson connects