Unit 11, lesson 66

Higher-Order Eigenvalue Problems and Beam Models

How the Euler-Bernoulli beam leads to a fourth-order eigenvalue problem, how clamped, pinned and free ends become conditions on the mode shape, and how beam mode shapes and natural frequencies follow.

  • Video 66
  • Fourth-Order Problems and Beams

Press a ruler flat on a table with part of it sticking out over the edge, and flick the free end. Nothing like the tension of a guitar string pulls it back. It springs back because it resists bending, and that resistance leads to an equation with four derivatives in space instead of two. This lesson sets up the Euler-Bernoulli beam model, reads clamped, pinned and free ends as conditions on the shape, and finds natural frequencies and mode shapes from a fourth-order eigenvalue problem. Throughout, xx is position along the beam, tt is time, subscripts are partial derivatives, and for a shape X(x)X(x) a prime means d/dxd/dx.

Key terms

Euler-Bernoulli beam

Definition The Euler-Bernoulli model describes the small transverse displacement u(x,t)u(x, t) of a slender beam on 0≤x≤L0 \le x \le L. With constant flexural rigidity EI>0EI > 0 and constant mass per unit length ρA>0\rho A > 0, the unforced equation is

ρA utt+EI uxxxx=0.\rho A\,u_{tt} + EI\,u_{xxxx} = 0.

Here EE is Young’s modulus of the material, II is the second moment of area of the cross section, ρ\rho is the density and AA is the cross-sectional area. The bending moment is EI uxxEI\,u_{xx} and the shear force is its xx-derivative (EI uxx)x(EI\,u_{xx})_x, each up to a sign convention, and the balance of forces and moments on a short piece of the beam gives ρA utt=−(EI uxx)xx\rho A\,u_{tt} = -(EI\,u_{xx})_{xx}. With constant EIEI this is the equation above. The model assumes small deflections and a linearly elastic material, and it neglects shear deformation, rotary inertia and any axial force.

In plain words A string resists stretching, so its restoring force follows the curvature uxxu_{xx}. A beam resists bending. The curvature sets the bending moment, the change of the moment along the beam sets the shear force, and the change of the shear force is the net push on each piece, which makes four derivatives in all.

Example Measure length in units of LL and time in units of

T0=L2ρAEI.T_0 = L^2\sqrt{\frac{\rho A}{EI}}.

With EIEI in N m2\text{N}\,\text{m}^2 and ρA\rho A in kg/m\text{kg/m}, this is a time in seconds. In the variables ξ=x/L\xi = x/L and τ=t/T0\tau = t/T_0 the equation becomes uττ+uξξξξ=0u_{\tau\tau} + u_{\xi\xi\xi\xi} = 0, which is the form with EI=ρA=L=1EI = \rho A = L = 1 used below. The time scale grows like L2L^2, so for the same material, cross section and supports, a beam twice as long has natural frequencies four times lower. A string with the same tension and density and fixed ends would have frequencies only two times lower.

Fourth-order eigenvalue problem

Definition Separating variables in the beam equation, u=X(x) T(t)u = X(x)\,T(t), gives T′′+λT=0T'' + \lambda T = 0 for the time factor and the spatial problem

EI X′′′′=λ ρA X,0<x<L,\begin{gathered} EI\,X'''' = \lambda\,\rho A\,X, \\[0.4em] 0 < x < L, \end{gathered}

with two homogeneous boundary conditions at each end. This is a fourth-order eigenvalue problem, and a number λ\lambda for which it has a nonzero solution XX is an eigenvalue. Multiplying by XX and integrating by parts twice gives

∫0LXX′′′′ dx=[XX′′′−X′X′′]0L+∫0L(X′′)2 dx.\begin{aligned} &\int_0^L X X''''\,dx \\[0.4em] &\quad = \Big[X X''' - X'X''\Big]_0^L \\[0.4em] &\qquad + \int_0^L (X'')^2\,dx. \end{aligned}

When each end is clamped, pinned or free, the bracket is zero at both ends. At a clamped end XX and X′X' vanish, at a pinned end XX and X′′X'' vanish, and at a free end X′′X'' and X′′′X''' vanish, so both products in the bracket are zero there. Then

EI∫0L(X′′)2 dx=λ ρA∫0LX2 dx\begin{aligned} &EI\int_0^L (X'')^2\,dx \\[0.4em] &\quad = \lambda\,\rho A\int_0^L X^2\,dx \end{aligned}

for a real mode shape, and the same computation with ∣X∣2\lvert X \rvert^2 shows that no eigenvalue is complex. So λ≥0\lambda \ge 0, and λ=ω2\lambda = \omega^2 with ω≥0\omega \ge 0. For ω>0\omega > 0 the time factor is acos⁡ωt+bsin⁡ωta\cos\omega t + b\sin\omega t, and ω\omega is a natural frequency. Put β4=ρA ω2/EI\beta^4 = \rho A\,\omega^2/EI with β>0\beta > 0. The equation X′′′′=β4XX'''' = \beta^4X has characteristic roots ±β\pm\beta and ±iβ\pm i\beta, so

X=c1cos⁡βx+c2sin⁡βx+c3cosh⁡βx+c4sinh⁡βx.\begin{aligned} X &= c_1\cos\beta x + c_2\sin\beta x \\[0.4em] &\quad + c_3\cosh\beta x \\[0.4em] &\quad + c_4\sinh\beta x. \end{aligned}

The four end conditions form a homogeneous linear system for c1,…,c4c_1, \dots, c_4, which has a nonzero solution exactly when its determinant is zero. That determinant equation is the frequency equation. Fourth-order problems do not automatically inherit the theorems for second-order Sturm-Liouville problems. For example, an eigenvalue need not be simple, as the free end card shows.

In plain words The beam equation asks for shapes that the bending stiffness pushes back in proportion to the shape itself. Four derivatives need four conditions, two at each end, and the energy identity says that the stored bending energy can never be negative, so the squared frequency cannot be negative either.

Example With EI=ρA=L=1EI = \rho A = L = 1, the shape X=sin⁡πxX = \sin \pi x has X′′′′=π4XX'''' = \pi^4 X, so λ=π4\lambda = \pi^4. The energy identity agrees. Since (X′′)2=π4sin⁡2πx(X'')^2 = \pi^4\sin^2 \pi x and ∫01sin⁡2πx dx=12\int_0^1 \sin^2 \pi x\,dx = \tfrac12,

∫01(X′′)2 dx=π42,∫01X2 dx=12,\begin{gathered} \int_0^1 (X'')^2\,dx = \frac{\pi^4}{2}, \\[0.4em] \int_0^1 X^2\,dx = \frac12, \end{gathered}

and the ratio of the two integrals is π4\pi^4, which is λ\lambda.

The identity also says when λ=0\lambda = 0 can occur. Zero frequency needs X′′=0X'' = 0 on the whole beam, so XX is a straight line, and that line must satisfy all four end conditions. A beam pinned at both ends allows no such line except X=0X = 0, so its lowest frequency is positive.

Clamped end

Definition At a clamped end, also called a fixed or built-in end, the support prevents both translation and rotation. The conditions at that end are

X=0andX′=0,X = 0 \quad\text{and}\quad X' = 0,

and the vibration satisfies u=0u = 0 and ux=0u_x = 0 there at all times. These are conditions on the geometry, so they keep this form when the rigidity varies.

In plain words A clamped end is held in place and kept from turning, like a beam set into a wall. Holding the end at the right height is not enough. Its slope is held too, which is a stronger restraint than holding the position alone.

Example Clamping x=0x = 0 removes half of the general solution. The conditions read c1+c3=0c_1 + c_3 = 0 and β(c2+c4)=0\beta(c_2 + c_4) = 0, so every admissible shape has the form

X=A(cos⁡βx−cosh⁡βx)+B(sin⁡βx−sinh⁡βx).\begin{aligned} X &= A(\cos\beta x - \cosh\beta x) \\[0.4em] &\quad + B(\sin\beta x - \sinh\beta x). \end{aligned}

The shape sin⁡πx\sin \pi x is not allowed at a clamped end at 00, because its slope there is π\pi, not 00. A clamped end also rules out zero frequency, since a straight line with zero height and zero slope at one point is zero everywhere.

Pinned end

Definition At a pinned end, also called a simply supported end, the support holds the displacement at zero but lets the beam rotate freely, so no bending moment acts there. The conditions at that end are

X=0andX′′=0.X = 0 \quad\text{and}\quad X'' = 0.

The moment condition is EI X′′=0EI\,X'' = 0, and since EI>0EI > 0 it is the same as X′′=0X'' = 0 even when the rigidity varies. The slope at a pinned end is not restricted and is usually not zero.

In plain words A pinned end sits on a hinge. It cannot move up or down, but it can turn, and because the hinge exerts no bending moment on the beam, the curvature there is zero.

Example Pinning both ends of [0,1][0, 1] picks out the sine modes. At x=0x = 0 the conditions give c1+c3=0c_1 + c_3 = 0 and β2(c3−c1)=0\beta^2(c_3 - c_1) = 0, so c1=c3=0c_1 = c_3 = 0. At x=1x = 1 they give c2sin⁡β+c4sinh⁡β=0c_2\sin\beta + c_4\sinh\beta = 0 and β2(c4sinh⁡β−c2sin⁡β)=0\beta^2(c_4\sinh\beta - c_2\sin\beta) = 0. Dividing the second by β2\beta^2 and adding the two gives 2c4sinh⁡β=02c_4\sinh\beta = 0, so c4=0c_4 = 0, and then c2sin⁡β=0c_2\sin\beta = 0 with c2≠0c_2 \ne 0 forces β=nπ\beta = n\pi. The mode shapes are sin⁡nπx\sin n\pi x for n=1,2,3,…n = 1, 2, 3, \dots, and their slope at 00 is nπ≠0n\pi \ne 0, so the beam does turn at each pin.

Free end

Definition At a free end with no applied load, neither a bending moment nor a shear force acts. For constant EIEI the conditions at that end are

X′′=0andX′′′=0.X'' = 0 \quad\text{and}\quad X''' = 0.

With variable rigidity the conditions are written for the moment and the shear themselves, EI X′′=0EI\,X'' = 0 and (EI X′′)′=0(EI\,X'')' = 0, and the equation becomes (EI X′′)′′=λ ρA X(EI\,X'')'' = \lambda\,\rho A\,X. Since (EI X′′)′=(EI)′X′′+EI X′′′(EI\,X'')' = (EI)'X'' + EI\,X''' and EI>0EI > 0, an unloaded free end still gives X′′=X′′′=0X'' = X''' = 0. With an applied end force or moment the rigidity factors stay in the conditions. Free does not mean zero displacement or zero slope, since both are left to the motion.

In plain words Nothing holds a free end. It can move and turn as it likes, and what vanishes there are the forces, the bending moment and the shear, not the position.

Example A cantilever on [0,1][0, 1] with EI=ρA=1EI = \rho A = 1 is clamped at 00 and free at 11. Start from the form that the clamped end card found and write c=cos⁡βc = \cos\beta, s=sin⁡βs = \sin\beta, C=cosh⁡βC = \cosh\beta and S=sinh⁡βS = \sinh\beta. The conditions X′′(1)=0X''(1) = 0 and X′′′(1)=0X'''(1) = 0 become

A(c+C)+B(s+S)=0,A(s−S)−B(c+C)=0.\begin{aligned} A(c + C) + B(s + S) &= 0, \\[0.4em] A(s - S) - B(c + C) &= 0. \end{aligned}

The determinant is −(c+C)2−(s+S)(s−S)=−2−2cC-(c + C)^2 - (s + S)(s - S) = -2 - 2cC, using c2+s2=1c^2 + s^2 = 1 and C2−S2=1C^2 - S^2 = 1. So the frequency equation is cos⁡βcosh⁡β=−1\cos\beta\cosh\beta = -1, whose smallest positive root is β1≈1.8751\beta_1 \approx 1.8751, and the lowest frequency is ω1=β12≈3.516\omega_1 = \beta_1^2 \approx 3.516 in these units. A beam free at both ends behaves differently. The shapes X=1X = 1, a rigid translation, and X=xX = x, a small rigid tilt, both have X′′=X′′′=0X'' = X''' = 0 everywhere, so λ=0\lambda = 0 is an eigenvalue with two independent shapes. That cannot happen for a regular second-order Sturm-Liouville problem with separated conditions, whose eigenvalues are simple.

Beam mode shapes

Definition A beam mode shape is a nonzero solution XnX_n of the fourth-order eigenvalue problem with its boundary conditions, and its natural frequency is ωn=λn\omega_n = \sqrt{\lambda_n}. For ωn>0\omega_n > 0 the vibration

u=Xn(x) Tn(t),Tn=acos⁡ωnt+bsin⁡ωnt,\begin{gathered} u = X_n(x)\,T_n(t), \\[0.4em] T_n = a\cos\omega_n t + b\sin\omega_n t, \end{gathered}

satisfies the beam equation and all four end conditions at every time, and by linearity so does any finite sum of such vibrations. For a beam pinned at both ends of [0,L][0, L], the modes are

Xn=sin⁡nπxL,ωn=(nπL)2EIρA,\begin{gathered} X_n = \sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}, \\[0.4em] \omega_n = \left(\frac{n\pi}{L}\right)^2\sqrt{\frac{EI}{\rho A}}, \end{gathered}

for n=1,2,3,…n = 1, 2, 3, \dots. The mode shape fixes the spatial pattern and the frequency, and the initial displacement and velocity fix the coefficients aa and bb. For any combination of clamped, pinned and free ends, two modes with different frequencies are orthogonal, ∫0LXmXn dx=0\int_0^L X_mX_n\,dx = 0, by the same integration by parts as in the energy identity.

In plain words A mode is a shape that vibrates in place, with every point moving in step at one frequency. For a pinned beam, mode nn has nn half-waves and a frequency proportional to n2n^2, so doubling the mode number quadruples the frequency. For an ideal string it only doubles it.

Example With EI=ρA=L=1EI = \rho A = L = 1 and both ends pinned, take

u(x,t)=sin⁡(πx)cos⁡(π2t).u(x, t) = \sin(\pi x)\cos(\pi^2t).

Then utt=−π4uu_{tt} = -\pi^4u and uxxxx=π4uu_{xxxx} = \pi^4u, so utt+uxxxx=0u_{tt} + u_{xxxx} = 0. At x=0x = 0 and x=1x = 1 the sine factor vanishes, so u=0u = 0, and uxx=−π2uu_{xx} = -\pi^2u vanishes too, which is the zero-moment condition. At t=0t = 0 the shape is sin⁡πx\sin \pi x, and the velocity ut=−π2sin⁡(πx)sin⁡(π2t)u_t = -\pi^2\sin(\pi x)\sin(\pi^2t) is zero. The next pinned modes have ω2=4π2\omega_2 = 4\pi^2 and ω3=9π2\omega_3 = 9\pi^2. An ideal string fixed at both ends with the same lowest frequency π2\pi^2 would have its next frequencies at 2π22\pi^2 and 3π23\pi^2.

Check yourself

  1. With EI=ρA=L=1EI = \rho A = L = 1 and both ends pinned, a beam starts at rest with displacement sin⁡πx+12sin⁡3πx\sin \pi x + \tfrac12\sin 3\pi x. Write u(x,t)u(x, t) and check the boundary conditions.
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Both terms are pinned mode shapes, with ω1=π2\omega_1 = \pi^2 and ω3=9π2\omega_3 = 9\pi^2. Starting at rest leaves only the cosine factors, so

u=sin⁡(πx)cos⁡(π2t)+12sin⁡(3πx)cos⁡(9π2t).\begin{aligned} u &= \sin(\pi x)\cos(\pi^2t) \\[0.4em] &\quad + \tfrac12\sin(3\pi x)\cos(9\pi^2t). \end{aligned}

For the second term uttu_{tt} and uxxxxu_{xxxx} are −81π4-81\pi^4 and 81π481\pi^4 times the term, so each term solves utt+uxxxx=0u_{tt} + u_{xxxx} = 0 and so does the sum. At x=0x = 0 and x=1x = 1 both sines vanish, so u=0u = 0, and uxxu_{xx} is a combination of the same two sines, so it vanishes as well. At t=0t = 0 the displacement is sin⁡πx+12sin⁡3πx\sin \pi x + \tfrac12\sin 3\pi x and ut=0u_t = 0.

  1. The shape X(x)=xX(x) = x has X′′=X′′′=0X'' = X''' = 0 everywhere. For which of these supports on [0,1][0, 1] is it a mode with ω=0\omega = 0? Pinned at 00 and free at 11, clamped at 00 and free at 11, free at both ends, pinned at both ends.
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The shape must meet both conditions at each end. Pinned at 00 needs X(0)=0X(0) = 0 and X′′(0)=0X''(0) = 0, which hold, and free at 11 needs X′′(1)=X′′′(1)=0X''(1) = X'''(1) = 0, which hold. So the beam pinned at 00 and free at 11 has this zero-frequency mode, a rigid rotation about the pin. Clamped at 00 needs X′(0)=0X'(0) = 0, but X′(0)=1X'(0) = 1, so the cantilever does not. Free at both ends works, since all four conditions involve only X′′X'' and X′′′X'''. Pinned at both ends fails, since X(1)=1≠0X(1) = 1 \ne 0. The mistake to avoid is reading a free end as X=0X = 0. A free end restricts only X′′X'' and X′′′X'''.

  1. A beam with EI=ρA=1EI = \rho A = 1 on [0,1][0, 1] is clamped at x=0x = 0 and pinned at x=1x = 1. Derive the frequency equation and compare the lowest frequency with the value π2\pi^2 for a beam pinned at both ends.
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The clamped end leaves X=A(cos⁡βx−cosh⁡βx)+B(sin⁡βx−sinh⁡βx)X = A(\cos\beta x - \cosh\beta x) + B(\sin\beta x - \sinh\beta x). With c=cos⁡βc = \cos\beta, s=sin⁡βs = \sin\beta, C=cosh⁡βC = \cosh\beta and S=sinh⁡βS = \sinh\beta, the pinned conditions X(1)=0X(1) = 0 and X′′(1)=0X''(1) = 0 read

A(c−C)+B(s−S)=0,A(c+C)+B(s+S)=0.\begin{aligned} A(c - C) + B(s - S) &= 0, \\[0.4em] A(c + C) + B(s + S) &= 0. \end{aligned}

The determinant is (c−C)(s+S)−(s−S)(c+C)=2(cS−sC)(c - C)(s + S) - (s - S)(c + C) = 2(cS - sC), so the frequency equation is sin⁡βcosh⁡β=cos⁡βsinh⁡β\sin\beta\cosh\beta = \cos\beta\sinh\beta. A root cannot have cos⁡β=0\cos\beta = 0, because then the left side would be ±cosh⁡β≠0\pm\cosh\beta \ne 0, so the equation is the same as tan⁡β=tanh⁡β\tan\beta = \tanh\beta. Its smallest positive root is β1≈3.9266\beta_1 \approx 3.9266, so

ω1=β12≈15.42,\omega_1 = \beta_1^2 \approx 15.42,

compared with π2≈9.87\pi^2 \approx 9.87 for the beam pinned at both ends. Clamping one end makes the support stiffer and raises the lowest frequency. Zero frequency is impossible here because a clamped end allows no straight-line mode.

How this lesson connects