The orthogonal decomposition of an inner product space, the orthogonal projection and the projection theorem for best approximation, orthogonal projectors as self-adjoint idempotent maps, and polynomial approximation.
Which straight line comes closest to t2 when closeness is judged only by the values at t=−1,0,1,2? This is one case of a general question, finding the point of a subspace nearest to a given vector. In every finite-dimensional real or complex inner product space the answer comes from splitting the vector into a piece inside the subspace and a piece perpendicular to it, and the inside piece is the nearest point. This lesson proves that the split exists, shows that it gives the one and only nearest point, and characterizes the linear maps that perform it. Throughout, F is R or C, inner products are conjugate-linear in the first argument and linear in the second, and a tuple such as (1,i) stands for a column vector.
Key terms
Orthogonal decomposition
Definition Let V be a finite-dimensional inner product space over F and let U be a subspace. Then V is the orthogonal direct sum
V=U⊕U⊥.
So every v∈V can be written in exactly one way as v=u+w with u∈U and w∈U⊥, and then ∥v∥2=∥u∥2+∥w∥2. For existence, choose an orthonormal basis q1,…,qr of U and extend it to an orthonormal basis q1,…,qn of V. Finite dimension makes this possible, by extending to a basis of V and applying Gram-Schmidt. Then take
u=j=1∑r⟨qj,v⟩qj,w=j=r+1∑n⟨qj,v⟩qj.
The orthonormal expansion of v gives v=u+w. Here u∈U, and w∈U⊥ because each qj with j>r is orthogonal to q1,…,qr. For uniqueness, if u+w=u′+w′ with u,u′∈U and w,w′∈U⊥, then u−u′=w′−w lies in U∩U⊥={0}. The norm identity holds because ⟨u,w⟩=0 removes both cross terms from ∥u+w∥2.
In plain words Every vector splits into a piece inside U and a piece perpendicular to U, in only one way, and the squared lengths of the two pieces add up.
Example In R3 with the dot product, let U be spanned by (1,1,0) and (0,0,1), and let v=(3,1,2). Then
v=(2,2,2)+(1,−1,0),
where (2,2,2)=2(1,1,0)+2(0,0,1) lies in U and (1,−1,0) is orthogonal to both spanning vectors. The squared lengths agree, since 14=12+2.
Orthogonal projection
Definition Let U be a subspace of a finite-dimensional inner product space V over F. The orthogonal projection onto U is the map PU:V→V that sends v to its U part in the decomposition V=U⊕U⊥. Equivalently, PUv is the unique vector with
PUv∈Uandv−PUv∈U⊥.
If q1,…,qr is an orthonormal basis of U, then
PUv=j=1∑r⟨qj,v⟩qj.
The basis vector sits in the conjugate-linear first slot of each coefficient, so the coefficient is linear in v. The map PU is linear, fixes every vector of U and sends every vector of U⊥ to 0. Because the decomposition is unique, PU does not depend on which orthonormal basis of U is used. For a basis u1,…,ur of U that is not orthonormal, PUv=∑jcjuj, where the coefficients solve Gc=h with the Gram matrix Gij=⟨ui,uj⟩ and hi=⟨ui,v⟩. These equations say exactly that ⟨ui,v−PUv⟩=0 for each i.
In plain words Keep the coordinates of v along an orthonormal basis of U and drop the rest. What is dropped is perpendicular to U.
Example In C2 with the standard inner product, let U=span{(1,i)}, with unit vector q=21(1,i), and let v=(0,2). Then ⟨q,v⟩=21(−i)(2)=−2i, so
PUv=−2i⋅21(1,i)=(−i,1).
The residual v−PUv=(i,1) satisfies ⟨(1,i),(i,1)⟩=i−i=0. Putting q in the second slot instead gives the coefficient ⟨v,q⟩=2i and the point (i,−1). Its residual (−i,3) has inner product −4i with (1,i), so that point is not the projection.
Best approximation
Definition Let U be a subspace of an inner product space V over F and let v∈V. A best approximation to v from U is a vector u0∈U with
∥v−u0∥≤∥v−u∥for every u∈U.
The tool for finding it is the squared-distance identity. If p∈U and v−p∈U⊥, then for every u∈U
∥v−u∥2=∥v−p∥2+∥p−u∥2.
To see it, write v−u=(v−p)+(p−u). The second piece lies in U and the first is orthogonal to U, so both cross terms ⟨v−p,p−u⟩ and ⟨p−u,v−p⟩ vanish when the squared norm is expanded. The term ∥p−u∥2 is positive unless u=p. So such a p is a best approximation, and it is the only one.
In plain words Once a point of U has a residual perpendicular to U, every other point of U is farther from v, and the extra squared distance is exactly the squared distance between the two points of U.
Example For v=(3,1,2) and the plane U spanned by (1,1,0) and (0,0,1), the point p=(2,2,2) has the residual (1,−1,0), which is orthogonal to U. The competitor u=(3,3,2)=3(1,1,0)+2(0,0,1) gives
∥v−u∥2=0+4+0=4=2+2,
where ∥v−p∥2=2 and ∥p−u∥2=2. So u is farther from v than p, and the excess is the squared distance from p to u.
Projection theorem
Definition Let V be a finite-dimensional inner product space over F, let U be a subspace and let v∈V. Then the following hold.
Exactly one best approximation to v from U exists, namely PUv.
A vector u0∈U is that best approximation exactly when v−u0∈U⊥.
The squared distance from v to U is
∥v−PUv∥2=∥v∥2−∥PUv∥2.
Existence comes from the orthogonal decomposition, which used finite dimension to build an orthonormal basis. Uniqueness and the test in part 2 come from the squared-distance identity. A vector that passes the test is the unique best approximation, and conversely the unique best approximation is PUv, which passes the test. Part 3 is the Pythagorean identity for v=PUv+(v−PUv), and for an orthonormal basis q1,…,qr of U the subtracted term equals ∑j∣⟨qj,v⟩∣2. The theorem is about the point u0, not about coordinates. If U is described by a dependent spanning list, several coefficient lists give the same u0. In infinite-dimensional spaces a subspace need not contain a nearest point at all.
In plain words In a finite-dimensional inner product space every vector has exactly one nearest point in a given subspace, and you recognize it by its residual being perpendicular to the subspace.
Example For v=(3,1,2) and the same plane U, the test confirms u0=(2,2,2) without any minimizing, and the squared distance is 14−12=2. Now describe the plane by the dependent list (1,1,0), (0,0,1), (1,1,1). Then
2(1,1,0)+2(0,0,1)2(1,1,1)=(2,2,2),=(2,2,2),
so the coefficient lists (2,2,0) and (0,0,2) name the same unique nearest point.
Orthogonal projector
Definition Let V be a finite-dimensional inner product space over F. A linear map P:V→V is an orthogonal projector if
P2=PandP∗=P.
Every orthogonal projection PU is one. It is idempotent because it fixes its own outputs, which lie in U. It is self-adjoint because v−PUv and v′−PUv′ are orthogonal to U, so
⟨PUv,v′⟩=⟨PUv,PUv′⟩=⟨v,PUv′⟩.
Conversely, if P2=P=P∗, then P=PU for U=imP. Indeed Pv lies in imP, and for every image vector Pz the residual v−Pv satisfies
⟨Pz,v−Pv⟩=⟨z,P(v−Pv)⟩=⟨z,Pv−P2v⟩=0.
If the columns of Q∈Fn×r are the coordinates of an orthonormal basis of U in an orthonormal basis of V, so that Q∗Q=Ir, then the matrix of PU in that basis of V is QQ∗. In a basis with Gram matrix G, the condition P∗=P reads M∗G=GM for the coordinate matrix M of P. Idempotence alone is not enough. A map with P2=P is the projection onto its image along its kernel, and when the kernel is not (imP)⊥ the projection is oblique and misses the nearest point for some vectors.
In plain words A map is an orthogonal projector when applying it a second time changes nothing and it equals its own adjoint. The second condition is what makes the discarded part perpendicular.
Example For U=span{(1,i)} in C2 and q=21(1,i),
P=qq∗=21[1i−i1].
It is Hermitian, its square is P, and P(0,2)=(−i,1), the projection found earlier. By contrast, on R2 with the dot product the matrix
K=[1020]
satisfies K2=K and has the first coordinate axis as its image, but KT=K. It sends (0,1) to (2,0), at squared distance 5 from (0,1), while the point (0,0) of the same axis is at squared distance 1.
Polynomial approximation in an inner product space
Definition Let t1,…,tN be distinct real numbers with N≥d+1. On Pd, the space of polynomials of degree at most d with coefficients in F, the formula
⟨p,q⟩=k=1∑Np(tk)q(tk)
defines an inner product. It is positive definite because ⟨p,p⟩=∑k∣p(tk)∣2=0 forces p to vanish at N≥d+1 points, and a nonzero polynomial of degree at most d has at most d roots. Polynomial approximation in an inner product space asks for the polynomial in a subspace U, such as Pe with e<d, that is closest to a given p in this or another inner product. By the projection theorem the answer is PUp, found from the Gram equations for a basis of U. A different inner product, for example one with different sample points, generally gives a different best approximation.
In plain words Polynomials are vectors, and an inner product decides how far apart two of them are. The best approximation from a smaller polynomial space is then an orthogonal projection like any other.
Example Use the points −1,0,1,2 on P2 and project t2 onto P1=span{1,t}. The sample vectors are (1,1,1,1) for 1, (−1,0,1,2) for t and (1,0,1,4) for t2, so the Gram equations for c0+c1t are
[4226][c0c1]=[68],
with solution c0=c1=1. The best line is 1+t. The residual t2−t−1 has samples (1,−1,−1,1), which are orthogonal to the samples of 1 and of t, and its squared norm is 4. The line 2t, which agrees with t2 at 0 and 2, has squared error 10=4+6, where 6 is the squared norm of (1+t)−2t=1−t.
Check yourself
In R3 with the dot product, find the orthogonal projection of v=(1,2,3) onto the line spanned by u=(1,0,1), and the distance from v to that line.
Show the answer
The coefficient is ⟨u,v⟩/⟨u,u⟩=4/2=2, so the projection is 2u=(2,0,2). The residual (−1,2,1) has dot product −1+0+1=0 with u, so it passes the test, and the distance is its length 6.
On P2 use the inner product ⟨p,q⟩=∑kp(tk)q(tk) over the points −1,0,1. Find the best approximation to t2+2t from P1 and its squared error.
Show the answer
For these symmetric points ⟨1,t⟩=−1+0+1=0, so 1 and t form an orthogonal basis of P1 and each coefficient can be found on its own. The samples of p=t2+2t are (−1,0,3), so
⟨1,1⟩⟨1,p⟩=32,⟨t,t⟩⟨t,p⟩=24=2.
The best approximation is 32+2t. The residual t2−32 has samples (31,−32,31), which are orthogonal to (1,1,1) and to (−1,0,1), and the squared error is 91+94+91=32.
Give R2 the inner product ⟨x,y⟩=x1y1+2x2y2. Both matrices below are idempotent and have the line spanned by (1,1) as image. Which one is the orthogonal projector onto that line?
E=21[1111],M=31[1122]Show the answer
The standard basis has Gram matrix G=diag(1,2), so a real matrix is self-adjoint for this inner product exactly when XTG=GX. For M both sides equal
31[1224],
so M is the orthogonal projector. For E the two sides are different,
ETG=21[1122],GE=21[1212],
even though E is the orthogonal projector for the dot product. Test both on v=(1,0). The matrix M gives (31,31) with residual (32,−31), and ⟨(1,1),(32,−31)⟩=32−32=0. The matrix E gives (21,21) with residual (21,−21), whose inner product with (1,1) is 21−1=−21. The squared distances are 32 and 43, so E misses the nearest point.
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