Unit 2, lesson 11

Multivariate distributions and dependence

How a joint distribution carries more than its marginals, how covariance gives portfolio variance, why zero correlation need not mean independence, and how copulas and Sklar's theorem separate marginals from dependence.

  • Video 11
  • Distributions, expectation and dependence

Two assets each have a known return distribution, and a portfolio holds half of each. Do the two distributions, taken separately, determine how risky the portfolio is? They do not, because portfolio risk depends on which outcomes happen together. This lesson describes that information as a joint distribution, measures its linear part with covariance and correlation, shows that zero correlation implies independence only in special cases such as jointly Gaussian vectors, and separates the marginal scales from the dependence with copulas and Sklar’s theorem.

Key terms

Joint distribution

Definition For random variables XX and YY on one probability space (Ω,F,P)(\Omega, \mathcal{F}, \mathbb{P}), the joint distribution is the law of the random vector (X,Y)(X, Y), the probability measure that gives each Borel set B⊆R2B \subseteq \mathbb{R}^2 the probability P((X,Y)∈B)\mathbb{P}((X, Y) \in B). It is determined by the joint CDF

FX,Y(x,y)=P(X≤x, Y≤y).\begin{aligned} &F_{X,Y}(x, y) \\[0.4em] &= \mathbb{P}(X \le x,\, Y \le y). \end{aligned}

The marginal CDFs follow from it, since FX(x)=lim⁡y→∞FX,Y(x,y)F_X(x) = \lim_{y \to \infty} F_{X,Y}(x, y) and similarly for YY, but the marginals do not determine the joint law. The variables are independent exactly when FX,Y(x,y)=FX(x) FY(y)F_{X,Y}(x, y) = F_X(x)\,F_Y(y) for all xx and yy, or equivalently when P(X∈A,Y∈B)=P(X∈A) P(Y∈B)\mathbb{P}(X \in A, Y \in B) = \mathbb{P}(X \in A)\,\mathbb{P}(Y \in B) for all Borel sets AA and BB. A random vector with nn coordinates is handled the same way with nn thresholds.

In plain words The marginals describe each asset on its own. The joint distribution also says which outcomes occur together, and that is the information portfolio risk depends on.

Example Two constructed assets each return 0.10.1 or −0.1-0.1 with probability 12\frac12. Under joint law A they always move together, under joint law B they always move in opposite directions, and under joint law C the four combinations each have probability 14\frac14, so the returns are independent. All three laws have the same marginals. A portfolio with half in each asset returns 0.10.1 or −0.1-0.1 under A, with variance 0.010.01. It returns 00 in every state under B, with variance 00. Under C it returns 0.10.1, 00 or −0.1-0.1 with probabilities 14\frac14, 12\frac12 and 14\frac14, with variance 0.0050.005.

Covariance and correlation

Definition For square-integrable XX and YY with means μX\mu_X and μY\mu_Y, the covariance is

Cov⁡(X,Y)=E[(X−μX)(Y−μY)]=E[XY]−μXμY.\begin{aligned} &\operatorname{Cov}(X, Y) \\[0.4em] &= \mathbb{E}\bigl[(X - \mu_X)(Y - \mu_Y)\bigr] \\[0.4em] &= \mathbb{E}[XY] - \mu_X \mu_Y . \end{aligned}

If both standard deviations σX=Var⁡(X)\sigma_X = \sqrt{\operatorname{Var}(X)} and σY\sigma_Y are positive, the correlation is

ρX,Y=Cov⁡(X,Y)σX σY.\rho_{X,Y} = \frac{\operatorname{Cov}(X, Y)}{\sigma_X\,\sigma_Y}.

The Cauchy-Schwarz inequality applied to the centered variables gives ∣Cov⁡(X,Y)∣≤σXσY\lvert \operatorname{Cov}(X, Y) \rvert \le \sigma_X \sigma_Y, so −1≤ρX,Y≤1-1 \le \rho_{X,Y} \le 1. Equality ∣ρX,Y∣=1\lvert \rho_{X,Y} \rvert = 1 holds exactly when Y−μY=c (X−μX)Y - \mu_Y = c\,(X - \mu_X) almost surely for a constant c≠0c \ne 0, and the sign of cc is the sign of ρX,Y\rho_{X,Y}. If one variance is zero, that variable is almost surely constant, its covariance with any variable is 00, and the correlation is undefined rather than zero. Covariance is bilinear with Cov⁡(X,X)=Var⁡(X)\operatorname{Cov}(X, X) = \operatorname{Var}(X), and correlation does not change when XX is replaced by a+bXa + bX with b>0b > 0. For a random vector X∈RnX \in \mathbb{R}^n with finite second moments, the covariance matrix Σ\Sigma with entries Σij=Cov⁡(Xi,Xj)\Sigma_{ij} = \operatorname{Cov}(X_i, X_j) is symmetric and positive semidefinite, because w⊤Σw=Var⁡(w⊤X)≥0w^{\top} \Sigma w = \operatorname{Var}(w^{\top} X) \ge 0 for every w∈Rnw \in \mathbb{R}^n.

In plain words Covariance measures whether two variables tend to sit on the same side of their means at the same time. Correlation divides out both scales, so it lies between −1-1 and 11 and measures only how close the relation is to a straight line. A small correlation says that one linear cross moment is small, not that the variables are unrelated.

Example Two constructed returns have standard deviations 0.20.2 and 0.30.3 and correlation 0.50.5, so their covariance is 0.5⋅0.2⋅0.3=0.030.5 \cdot 0.2 \cdot 0.3 = 0.03 and

Σ=[0.040.030.030.09].\Sigma = \begin{bmatrix} 0.04 & 0.03 \\ 0.03 & 0.09 \end{bmatrix}.

Its determinant is 0.0036−0.0009=0.0027>00.0036 - 0.0009 = 0.0027 > 0 and its diagonal is positive, so Σ\Sigma is positive definite. Writing the returns in percent multiplies the covariance by 10410^4 and leaves the correlation at 0.50.5. For two assets every correlation in [−1,1][-1, 1] gives a valid matrix, but with three or more assets correlations that each lie in [−1,1][-1, 1] can still fail to form a covariance matrix, as the third question below shows.

Zero correlation versus independence

Definition If XX and YY are independent and square-integrable, then E[XY]=E[X] E[Y]\mathbb{E}[XY] = \mathbb{E}[X]\,\mathbb{E}[Y], so Cov⁡(X,Y)=0\operatorname{Cov}(X, Y) = 0. Variables with zero covariance are called uncorrelated. The converse fails. Zero covariance is the single equation E[XY]=E[X] E[Y]\mathbb{E}[XY] = \mathbb{E}[X]\,\mathbb{E}[Y], while independence requires P(X∈A,Y∈B)=P(X∈A) P(Y∈B)\mathbb{P}(X \in A, Y \in B) = \mathbb{P}(X \in A)\,\mathbb{P}(Y \in B) for all Borel sets AA and BB. Taking indicator functions shows that independence is the same as Cov⁡(g(X),h(Y))=0\operatorname{Cov}(g(X), h(Y)) = 0 for all bounded Borel functions gg and hh. To prove dependence, one pair of events whose joint probability differs from the product of their probabilities is enough.

In plain words Zero correlation rules out one kind of linear co-movement. Independence says that learning one variable tells you nothing about the other, which is far stronger.

Example In a constructed model, let a standardized return XX be −1-1, 00 or 11 with probability 13\frac13 each, and let Y=X2Y = X^2 be its square, a crude measure of the size of the move. Then E[X]=0\mathbb{E}[X] = 0, E[Y]=23\mathbb{E}[Y] = \frac23 and E[XY]=E[X3]=0\mathbb{E}[XY] = \mathbb{E}[X^3] = 0, so Cov⁡(X,Y)=0\operatorname{Cov}(X, Y) = 0. Yet YY is a function of XX. The event {X=0,Y=0}\{X = 0, Y = 0\} has probability 13\frac13, while

P(X=0) P(Y=0)=13⋅13=19,\begin{aligned} &\mathbb{P}(X = 0)\,\mathbb{P}(Y = 0) \\[0.4em] &= \tfrac13 \cdot \tfrac13 = \tfrac19 , \end{aligned}

so the two variables are uncorrelated and not independent.

Jointly Gaussian vector

Definition A random vector X∈RnX \in \mathbb{R}^n is jointly Gaussian if a⊤Xa^{\top} X is normal for every a∈Rna \in \mathbb{R}^n, where a constant counts as a normal variable with variance zero. Then XX has a mean vector μ\mu and a symmetric positive semidefinite covariance matrix Σ\Sigma, written X∼N(μ,Σ)X \sim N(\mu, \Sigma), and for every a∈Rna \in \mathbb{R}^n

a⊤X∼N(a⊤μ,  a⊤Σa).a^{\top} X \sim N\bigl(a^{\top}\mu,\; a^{\top}\Sigma a\bigr).

The law is determined by μ\mu and Σ\Sigma through the characteristic function, for u∈Rnu \in \mathbb{R}^n,

E[eiu⊤X]=e iu⊤μ−12u⊤Σu.\mathbb{E}\bigl[e^{i u^{\top} X}\bigr] = e^{\,i u^{\top}\mu - \frac12 u^{\top}\Sigma u}.

Conversely, for any μ\mu and any positive semidefinite Σ\Sigma, if ZZ has independent standard normal coordinates and LL is a matrix with LL⊤=ΣL L^{\top} = \Sigma, then μ+LZ∼N(μ,Σ)\mu + LZ \sim N(\mu, \Sigma). When Σ\Sigma is positive definite, the Cholesky factor is one such LL. If Σ\Sigma is singular, XX lies almost surely in the affine subspace μ+Col⁡Σ\mu + \operatorname{Col}\Sigma, which has lower dimension, and XX has no density on Rn\mathbb{R}^n. If X=(X1,X2)X = (X_1, X_2) is jointly Gaussian and the cross-covariance block Cov⁡(X1,X2)\operatorname{Cov}(X_1, X_2) is zero, then X1X_1 and X2X_2 are independent. The quadratic form u⊤Σuu^{\top}\Sigma u then splits into one term for each block, so the characteristic function factors, and a characteristic function determines the law, a result stated here. Normal marginals alone do not make a vector jointly Gaussian.

In plain words For a Gaussian vector every portfolio of the coordinates is normal, and the mean vector and the covariance matrix carry the whole joint law. That is why, in this special case, zero covariance already means independence. The rule needs joint Gaussianity, not only normal marginals.

Example For the constructed returns with standard deviations 0.20.2 and 0.30.3 and correlation 0.50.5, the Cholesky factor of Σ\Sigma is

L=[0.200.150.0675],L = \begin{bmatrix} 0.2 & 0 \\ 0.15 & \sqrt{0.0675} \end{bmatrix},

with 0.0675≈0.2598\sqrt{0.0675} \approx 0.2598. So the returns can be generated as X1=μ1+0.2 Z1X_1 = \mu_1 + 0.2\,Z_1 and X2=μ2+0.15 Z1+0.0675 Z2X_2 = \mu_2 + 0.15\,Z_1 + \sqrt{0.0675}\,Z_2, and indeed 0.152+0.0675=0.090.15^2 + 0.0675 = 0.09 and 0.2⋅0.15=0.030.2 \cdot 0.15 = 0.03. If the correlation were 11, the covariance 0.060.06 would make Σ\Sigma singular, the vector would lie on the line X2−μ2=1.5 (X1−μ1)X_2 - \mu_2 = 1.5\,(X_1 - \mu_1), and the weights 33 and −2-2 would give a portfolio with variance 9⋅0.04+4⋅0.09−12⋅0.06=09 \cdot 0.04 + 4 \cdot 0.09 - 12 \cdot 0.06 = 0.

Copula and Sklar’s theorem

Definition A bivariate copula is the joint CDF CC of a random vector (U,V)(U, V) whose coordinates are each uniform on [0,1][0, 1], so C(u,1)=uC(u, 1) = u and C(1,v)=vC(1, v) = v. If FXF_X is continuous, then FX(X)F_X(X) is uniform on [0,1][0, 1], which is the probability integral transform. Sklar’s theorem, stated here without proof, says that every joint CDF FX,YF_{X,Y} with marginals FXF_X and FYF_Y can be written as

FX,Y(x,y)=C(FX(x),FY(y))\begin{aligned} &F_{X,Y}(x, y) \\[0.4em] &= C\bigl(F_X(x), F_Y(y)\bigr) \end{aligned}

for all xx and yy, with a copula CC that is unique on the product of the ranges of FXF_X and FYF_Y. If both marginals are continuous, CC is unique on all of [0,1]2[0, 1]^2 and is the joint CDF of (FX(X),FY(Y))(F_X(X), F_Y(Y)). Conversely, for any copula CC and any univariate CDFs FF and GG, the function C(F(x),G(y))C(F(x), G(y)) is a joint CDF with marginals FF and GG. With continuous marginals, applying strictly increasing functions to XX and YY leaves the copula unchanged. Examples are the independence copula uvuv, the comonotone copula min⁡(u,v)\min(u, v), and the Gaussian copula Cρ(u,v)=Φρ(Φ−1(u),Φ−1(v))C_\rho(u, v) = \Phi_\rho(\Phi^{-1}(u), \Phi^{-1}(v)), where Φρ\Phi_\rho is the bivariate standard normal CDF with correlation ρ\rho. For continuous marginals, write U=FX(X)U = F_X(X) and V=FY(Y)V = F_Y(Y). The upper tail dependence coefficient is

λU=lim⁡u↑1P(V>u∣U>u),\begin{aligned} &\lambda_U \\[0.4em] &= \lim_{u \uparrow 1} \mathbb{P}(V > u \mid U > u), \end{aligned}

when the limit exists. If a marginal has an atom, FX(X)F_X(X) is not uniform and the copula is pinned down only on the ranges.

In plain words A copula is the dependence that remains after each variable is converted to its own percentile scale. Sklar’s theorem splits a joint law into its marginals and a copula, so a model can change the marginals and keep the dependence, or the other way around. A Gaussian copula with non-normal marginals does not make the variables jointly normal, and their correlation is not a property of the copula alone.

Example Let (Z1,Z2)(Z_1, Z_2) be jointly Gaussian with standard normal marginals and correlation ρ\rho, and let X=eZ1X = e^{Z_1} and Y=eZ2Y = e^{Z_2} be two lognormal prices. The exponential is strictly increasing, so (X,Y)(X, Y) has the same Gaussian copula CρC_\rho as (Z1,Z2)(Z_1, Z_2), yet

ρX,Y=eρ−1e−1,\rho_{X,Y} = \frac{e^{\rho} - 1}{e - 1},

about 0.37750.3775 for ρ=0.5\rho = 0.5. For ρ=−1\rho = -1 the price Y=1/XY = 1/X is a strictly decreasing function of XX, the strongest negative dependence there is, but the correlation is only −1/e≈−0.3679-1/e \approx -0.3679. In the upper tail, the Gaussian copula with ρ=0.5\rho = 0.5 gives the conditional exceedance probability P(V>u∣U>u)\mathbb{P}(V > u \mid U > u) of about 0.320.32 at u=0.9u = 0.9, 0.130.13 at u=0.99u = 0.99 and 0.0540.054 at u=0.999u = 0.999, computed numerically. It tends to 00, so λU=0\lambda_U = 0, as for every Gaussian copula with ρ<1\rho < 1, a result stated here. The comonotone copula has λU=1\lambda_U = 1.

Portfolio variance

Definition Let R=(R1,…,Rn)R = (R_1, \dots, R_n) be the one-period simple returns of nn assets, with finite second moments and covariance matrix Σ\Sigma, and let w∈Rnw \in \mathbb{R}^n be fixed weights, fractions of initial wealth with ∑iwi=1\sum_i w_i = 1, where a negative weight is a short position. The portfolio return w⊤Rw^{\top} R has

Var⁡(w⊤R)=w⊤Σw=∑i=1n∑j=1nwiwjΣij.\begin{aligned} &\operatorname{Var}(w^{\top} R) = w^{\top} \Sigma w \\[0.4em] &= \sum_{i=1}^{n} \sum_{j=1}^{n} w_i w_j \Sigma_{ij}. \end{aligned}

For two assets with standard deviations σ1\sigma_1 and σ2\sigma_2 and correlation ρ\rho,

Var⁡(w1R1+w2R2)=w12σ12+w22σ22+2w1w2 ρ σ1σ2.\begin{aligned} &\operatorname{Var}(w_1 R_1 + w_2 R_2) \\[0.4em] &= w_1^2\sigma_1^2 + w_2^2\sigma_2^2 \\[0.4em] &\quad + 2 w_1 w_2\,\rho\,\sigma_1\sigma_2 . \end{aligned}

The formula holds for every joint law with finite second moments, Gaussian or not. When R∼N(μ,Σ)R \sim N(\mu, \Sigma), the portfolio return is N(w⊤μ,w⊤Σw)N(w^{\top}\mu, w^{\top}\Sigma w), so its mean and variance fix its whole distribution. Otherwise they do not determine its tail probabilities. With nonnegative weights the portfolio standard deviation is at most ∑iwiσi\sum_i w_i \sigma_i. For two assets with positive weights and positive standard deviations, equality holds only when ρ=1\rho = 1.

In plain words Each asset contributes its own variance times the square of its weight, and each pair of assets contributes a cross term through its covariance. Diversification works through the cross terms. It does not make any single asset less volatile.

Example For the constructed returns with standard deviations 0.20.2 and 0.30.3, correlation 0.50.5 and weights 12\frac12 each, the variance is

14(0.04+0.09+0.06)=0.0475,\begin{aligned} &\tfrac14 (0.04 + 0.09 + 0.06) \\[0.4em] &= 0.0475, \end{aligned}

a standard deviation of about 0.21790.2179. Changing only the correlation to −0.5-0.5 flips the sign of the cross term and gives 14(0.04+0.09−0.06)=0.0175\frac14(0.04 + 0.09 - 0.06) = 0.0175, a standard deviation of about 0.13230.1323. Both covariance matrices have determinant 0.0027>00.0027 > 0, so both are valid models. The weighted average of the two standard deviations is 0.250.25, which the portfolio would reach only with correlation 11.

Check yourself

  1. Two constructed returns have standard deviations 0.10.1 and 0.20.2 and correlation 0.250.25. Find the variance and the standard deviation of a portfolio with weights 0.60.6 and 0.40.4, and compare the standard deviation with the weighted average of the two standard deviations.
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The covariance is 0.25⋅0.1⋅0.2=0.0050.25 \cdot 0.1 \cdot 0.2 = 0.005, so

0.36⋅0.01+0.16⋅0.04+2⋅0.6⋅0.4⋅0.005=0.0036+0.0064+0.0024=0.0124.\begin{aligned} &0.36 \cdot 0.01 + 0.16 \cdot 0.04 \\[0.4em] &\quad + 2 \cdot 0.6 \cdot 0.4 \cdot 0.005 \\[0.4em] &= 0.0036 + 0.0064 \\[0.4em] &\quad + 0.0024 = 0.0124 . \end{aligned}

The standard deviation is 0.0124≈0.1114\sqrt{0.0124} \approx 0.1114, below the weighted average 0.6⋅0.1+0.4⋅0.2=0.140.6 \cdot 0.1 + 0.4 \cdot 0.2 = 0.14. The gap comes from the correlation being less than 11.

  1. Let XX be standard normal, and let WW be independent of XX with P(W=1)=P(W=−1)=12\mathbb{P}(W = 1) = \mathbb{P}(W = -1) = \frac12. Set Y=WXY = WX. Show that YY is standard normal and that Cov⁡(X,Y)=0\operatorname{Cov}(X, Y) = 0. Are XX and YY independent, and is (X,Y)(X, Y) jointly Gaussian?
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By the independence of WW and XX and the symmetry of the normal law,

P(Y≤y)=12 P(X≤y)+12 P(−X≤y)=Φ(y),\begin{aligned} &\mathbb{P}(Y \le y) \\[0.4em] &= \tfrac12\,\mathbb{P}(X \le y) \\[0.4em] &\quad + \tfrac12\,\mathbb{P}(-X \le y) \\[0.4em] &= \Phi(y), \end{aligned}

so YY is standard normal. Also Cov⁡(X,Y)=E[WX2]=E[W] E[X2]=0\operatorname{Cov}(X, Y) = \mathbb{E}[WX^2] = \mathbb{E}[W]\,\mathbb{E}[X^2] = 0. The variables are not independent, because ∣Y∣=∣X∣\lvert Y \rvert = \lvert X \rvert. For example P(∣X∣>1,∣Y∣>1)=P(∣X∣>1)≈0.3173\mathbb{P}(\lvert X \rvert > 1, \lvert Y \rvert > 1) = \mathbb{P}(\lvert X \rvert > 1) \approx 0.3173, while the product P(∣X∣>1) P(∣Y∣>1)\mathbb{P}(\lvert X \rvert > 1)\,\mathbb{P}(\lvert Y \rvert > 1) is about 0.10070.1007. The vector is not jointly Gaussian either. The combination X+Y=(1+W)XX + Y = (1 + W)X equals 00 with probability 12\frac12 and has variance 22, so it is neither a normal variable with positive variance nor a constant. The Gaussian rule that zero covariance gives independence needs joint Gaussianity, and normal marginals with zero correlation are not enough.

  1. Three assets each have return standard deviation 0.20.2, and a model proposes the same correlation −0.6-0.6 for every pair. Is this a valid covariance model? What is the smallest common correlation that is valid, and what happens at that value?
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It is not valid. For equal weights 13\frac13 the portfolio variance would be

19(3⋅0.04+6⋅0.04 ρ)=0.043 (1+2ρ),\begin{aligned} &\tfrac19 \bigl(3 \cdot 0.04 + 6 \cdot 0.04\,\rho\bigr) \\[0.4em] &= \tfrac{0.04}{3}\,(1 + 2\rho), \end{aligned}

which is 0.04⋅(−0.2)/3≈−0.002670.04 \cdot (-0.2)/3 \approx -0.00267 for ρ=−0.6\rho = -0.6, and no variance can be negative. In general the correlation matrix with 11 on the diagonal and ρ\rho elsewhere has the eigenvalue 1+2ρ1 + 2\rho, with eigenvector (1,1,1)(1, 1, 1), and the eigenvalue 1−ρ1 - \rho twice. It is positive semidefinite exactly when −12≤ρ≤1-\frac12 \le \rho \le 1, even though every value in [−1,1][-1, 1] passes the two-asset check. At ρ=−12\rho = -\frac12 the matrix is singular and the equal-weight portfolio has variance 00. A jointly Gaussian vector with this covariance and mean vector μ\mu would lie in a plane, since R1+R2+R3R_1 + R_2 + R_3 would equal μ1+μ2+μ3\mu_1 + \mu_2 + \mu_3 almost surely.

How this lesson connects

It also uses characteristic functions.