Two assets each have a known return distribution, and a portfolio holds half of each. Do the two distributions, taken separately, determine how risky the portfolio is? They do not, because portfolio risk depends on which outcomes happen together. This lesson describes that information as a joint distribution, measures its linear part with covariance and correlation, shows that zero correlation implies independence only in special cases such as jointly Gaussian vectors, and separates the marginal scales from the dependence with copulas and Sklar’s theorem.
Key terms
Joint distribution
Definition For random variables and on one probability space , the joint distribution is the law of the random vector , the probability measure that gives each Borel set the probability . It is determined by the joint CDF
The marginal CDFs follow from it, since and similarly for , but the marginals do not determine the joint law. The variables are independent exactly when for all and , or equivalently when for all Borel sets and . A random vector with coordinates is handled the same way with thresholds.
In plain words The marginals describe each asset on its own. The joint distribution also says which outcomes occur together, and that is the information portfolio risk depends on.
Example Two constructed assets each return or with probability . Under joint law A they always move together, under joint law B they always move in opposite directions, and under joint law C the four combinations each have probability , so the returns are independent. All three laws have the same marginals. A portfolio with half in each asset returns or under A, with variance . It returns in every state under B, with variance . Under C it returns , or with probabilities , and , with variance .
Covariance and correlation
Definition For square-integrable and with means and , the covariance is
If both standard deviations and are positive, the correlation is
The Cauchy-Schwarz inequality applied to the centered variables gives , so . Equality holds exactly when almost surely for a constant , and the sign of is the sign of . If one variance is zero, that variable is almost surely constant, its covariance with any variable is , and the correlation is undefined rather than zero. Covariance is bilinear with , and correlation does not change when is replaced by with . For a random vector with finite second moments, the covariance matrix with entries is symmetric and positive semidefinite, because for every .
In plain words Covariance measures whether two variables tend to sit on the same side of their means at the same time. Correlation divides out both scales, so it lies between and and measures only how close the relation is to a straight line. A small correlation says that one linear cross moment is small, not that the variables are unrelated.
Example Two constructed returns have standard deviations and and correlation , so their covariance is and
Its determinant is and its diagonal is positive, so is positive definite. Writing the returns in percent multiplies the covariance by and leaves the correlation at . For two assets every correlation in gives a valid matrix, but with three or more assets correlations that each lie in can still fail to form a covariance matrix, as the third question below shows.
Zero correlation versus independence
Definition If and are independent and square-integrable, then , so . Variables with zero covariance are called uncorrelated. The converse fails. Zero covariance is the single equation , while independence requires for all Borel sets and . Taking indicator functions shows that independence is the same as for all bounded Borel functions and . To prove dependence, one pair of events whose joint probability differs from the product of their probabilities is enough.
In plain words Zero correlation rules out one kind of linear co-movement. Independence says that learning one variable tells you nothing about the other, which is far stronger.
Example In a constructed model, let a standardized return be , or with probability each, and let be its square, a crude measure of the size of the move. Then , and , so . Yet is a function of . The event has probability , while
so the two variables are uncorrelated and not independent.
Jointly Gaussian vector
Definition A random vector is jointly Gaussian if is normal for every , where a constant counts as a normal variable with variance zero. Then has a mean vector and a symmetric positive semidefinite covariance matrix , written , and for every
The law is determined by and through the characteristic function, for ,
Conversely, for any and any positive semidefinite , if has independent standard normal coordinates and is a matrix with , then . When is positive definite, the Cholesky factor is one such . If is singular, lies almost surely in the affine subspace , which has lower dimension, and has no density on . If is jointly Gaussian and the cross-covariance block is zero, then and are independent. The quadratic form then splits into one term for each block, so the characteristic function factors, and a characteristic function determines the law, a result stated here. Normal marginals alone do not make a vector jointly Gaussian.
In plain words For a Gaussian vector every portfolio of the coordinates is normal, and the mean vector and the covariance matrix carry the whole joint law. That is why, in this special case, zero covariance already means independence. The rule needs joint Gaussianity, not only normal marginals.
Example For the constructed returns with standard deviations and and correlation , the Cholesky factor of is
with . So the returns can be generated as and , and indeed and . If the correlation were , the covariance would make singular, the vector would lie on the line , and the weights and would give a portfolio with variance .
Copula and Sklar’s theorem
Definition A bivariate copula is the joint CDF of a random vector whose coordinates are each uniform on , so and . If is continuous, then is uniform on , which is the probability integral transform. Sklar’s theorem, stated here without proof, says that every joint CDF with marginals and can be written as
for all and , with a copula that is unique on the product of the ranges of and . If both marginals are continuous, is unique on all of and is the joint CDF of . Conversely, for any copula and any univariate CDFs and , the function is a joint CDF with marginals and . With continuous marginals, applying strictly increasing functions to and leaves the copula unchanged. Examples are the independence copula , the comonotone copula , and the Gaussian copula , where is the bivariate standard normal CDF with correlation . For continuous marginals, write and . The upper tail dependence coefficient is
when the limit exists. If a marginal has an atom, is not uniform and the copula is pinned down only on the ranges.
In plain words A copula is the dependence that remains after each variable is converted to its own percentile scale. Sklar’s theorem splits a joint law into its marginals and a copula, so a model can change the marginals and keep the dependence, or the other way around. A Gaussian copula with non-normal marginals does not make the variables jointly normal, and their correlation is not a property of the copula alone.
Example Let be jointly Gaussian with standard normal marginals and correlation , and let and be two lognormal prices. The exponential is strictly increasing, so has the same Gaussian copula as , yet
about for . For the price is a strictly decreasing function of , the strongest negative dependence there is, but the correlation is only . In the upper tail, the Gaussian copula with gives the conditional exceedance probability of about at , at and at , computed numerically. It tends to , so , as for every Gaussian copula with , a result stated here. The comonotone copula has .
Portfolio variance
Definition Let be the one-period simple returns of assets, with finite second moments and covariance matrix , and let be fixed weights, fractions of initial wealth with , where a negative weight is a short position. The portfolio return has
For two assets with standard deviations and and correlation ,
The formula holds for every joint law with finite second moments, Gaussian or not. When , the portfolio return is , so its mean and variance fix its whole distribution. Otherwise they do not determine its tail probabilities. With nonnegative weights the portfolio standard deviation is at most . For two assets with positive weights and positive standard deviations, equality holds only when .
In plain words Each asset contributes its own variance times the square of its weight, and each pair of assets contributes a cross term through its covariance. Diversification works through the cross terms. It does not make any single asset less volatile.
Example For the constructed returns with standard deviations and , correlation and weights each, the variance is
a standard deviation of about . Changing only the correlation to flips the sign of the cross term and gives , a standard deviation of about . Both covariance matrices have determinant , so both are valid models. The weighted average of the two standard deviations is , which the portfolio would reach only with correlation .
Check yourself
- Two constructed returns have standard deviations and and correlation . Find the variance and the standard deviation of a portfolio with weights and , and compare the standard deviation with the weighted average of the two standard deviations.
Show the answer
The covariance is , so
The standard deviation is , below the weighted average . The gap comes from the correlation being less than .
- Let be standard normal, and let be independent of with . Set . Show that is standard normal and that . Are and independent, and is jointly Gaussian?
Show the answer
By the independence of and and the symmetry of the normal law,
so is standard normal. Also . The variables are not independent, because . For example , while the product is about . The vector is not jointly Gaussian either. The combination equals with probability and has variance , so it is neither a normal variable with positive variance nor a constant. The Gaussian rule that zero covariance gives independence needs joint Gaussianity, and normal marginals with zero correlation are not enough.
- Three assets each have return standard deviation , and a model proposes the same correlation for every pair. Is this a valid covariance model? What is the smallest common correlation that is valid, and what happens at that value?
Show the answer
It is not valid. For equal weights the portfolio variance would be
which is for , and no variance can be negative. In general the correlation matrix with on the diagonal and elsewhere has the eigenvalue , with eigenvector , and the eigenvalue twice. It is positive semidefinite exactly when , even though every value in passes the two-asset check. At the matrix is singular and the equal-weight portfolio has variance . A jointly Gaussian vector with this covariance and mean vector would lie in a plane, since would equal almost surely.