How the series solution of Legendre's equation terminates in Legendre polynomials, how the standard normalization fixes their scale, and why they are orthogonal eigenfunctions of a boundedness problem.
Separating Laplace’s equation in spherical coordinates, for a solution that does not depend on the longitude, leaves an equation in the polar angle θ, and the substitution x=cosθ places it on the interval −1≤x≤1 with the two poles at the ends. That equation has singular points exactly at the poles, and for most values of its parameter every nonzero solution is unbounded near at least one of them. This lesson shows how special parameter values make a series solution stop as a polynomial, builds the cubic Legendre polynomial, and explains why Legendre polynomials of different degrees are orthogonal.
Key terms
Legendre’s equation
Definition Let λ be a real constant. Legendre’s equation is
(1−x2)y′′−2xy′+λy=0,
where x is the independent variable and y′=dy/dx. The parameter is usually written λ=n(n+1), and the case of an integer n≥0 is the important one. Since ((1−x2)y′)′=(1−x2)y′′−2xy′, the equation has the self-adjoint form
((1−x2)y′)′+λy=0.
The leading coefficient vanishes only at x=±1, so (−1,1) is a regular interval and x=0 is an ordinary point. A power series solution about 0 therefore converges at least for ∣x∣<1, the distance to the nearest singular point. The endpoints are regular singular points. Near x=1 the normalized coefficients p(x)=−2x/(1−x2) and q(x)=λ/(1−x2) give (x−1)p(x)=2x/(1+x) and (x−1)2q(x)=−λ(x−1)/(1+x), both analytic at 1, and the indicial equation is r2=0. Because of this repeated root, only the multiples of one solution stay bounded near x=1, and every other solution grows like a logarithm there. Replacing x by −x leaves the equation unchanged, so the same holds at x=−1.
In plain words Legendre’s equation is a second-order linear equation that behaves well strictly inside the interval from −1 to 1 and becomes singular at its two ends. At each end, the solutions that stay finite form a single family of multiples.
Example Let Θ(θ) be a function of the polar angle with 0<θ<π, and set x=cosθ and y(x)=Θ(θ). The chain rule gives dΘ/dθ=−sinθy′(x), so sinθdΘ/dθ=−(1−x2)y′. Differentiating once more in θ and dividing by sinθ gives
sinθ1dθd(sinθdθdΘ)=((1−x2)y′)′.
The angular equation from separating Laplace’s equation sets this expression plus λΘ equal to 0, so it is Legendre’s equation in the variable x. The poles θ=0 and θ=π become the singular points x=1 and x=−1. For instance y=x, which is Θ=cosθ, solves the equation with λ=2, since (1−x2)⋅0−2x+2x=0.
Polynomial termination
Definition Substitute a power seriesy=∑akxk about the ordinary point x=0. The coefficient of xk collects (k+2)(k+1)ak+2 from y′′, then −k(k−1)ak from −x2y′′, −2kak from −2xy′ and λak, so
ak+2=(k+2)(k+1)k(k+1)−λak
for k≥0, with a0 and a1 free. The even coefficients form one chain and the odd coefficients another. If λ=n(n+1) for an integer n≥0, the numerator is zero at k=n, so an+2=0 and every later coefficient with the parity of n vanishes. That chain terminates, and with a nonzero first coefficient it gives a polynomial of degree n. The other chain never terminates when its first coefficient is nonzero, because k(k+1)=n(n+1) has no other solution with k≥0. The ratio ak+2/ak along it tends to 1, so it is an infinite series with radius of convergence exactly 1. Its sum is not a multiple of the polynomial, so by the endpoint analysis above it is unbounded as x→1, and by its parity also as x→−1. Hence for λ=n(n+1) the polynomial solutions are exactly the multiples of one polynomial of degree n. For any other λ the numerator is never zero, so neither chain terminates and no nonzero solution is a polynomial. Here n is the degree of a polynomial, while the differential equation has order 2 for every n.
In plain words Each coefficient is the one two steps earlier times a factor, and for λ=n(n+1) that factor becomes zero when the index reaches n. From there on the chain of that parity is stuck at zero and the series ends. The other chain is not affected and runs on forever.
Example For n=1, so λ=2, the odd chain stops at once and gives y=x. The even chain with a0=1 has the factor (k−1)(k+2)/((k+2)(k+1))=(k−1)/(k+1), so
y=1−x2−3x4−5x6−⋯,
and for −1<x<1 this sum equals
1−2xln1−x1+x,
which tends to −∞ both as x→1 and as x→−1.
Legendre polynomials
Definition For an integer n≥0, the Legendre polynomial Pn is the polynomial solution of degree n of Legendre’s equation with λ=n(n+1), scaled so that Pn(1)=1. It is also given by Rodrigues’ formula
Each Pn contains only powers with the parity of n, so Pn(−x)=(−1)nPn(x) and Pn(−1)=(−1)n. Each Pn has degree exactly n, so P0,…,Pn span all polynomials of degree at most n.
In plain words The Legendre polynomials are the terminating solutions, one for each degree, all scaled to equal 1 at x=1. Even degrees give even polynomials and odd degrees give odd ones.
Example Build P3. Here λ=12, and the odd chain is the one that stops, so take a0=0. At k=1 the factor is (2−12)/6=−35, so a3=−35a1, and at k=3 the factor is (12−12)/20=0, so a5=0. The solution is a1(x−35x3), whose value at x=1 is −32a1. Setting this equal to 1 gives a1=−23, so
P3(x)=25x3−3x.
To check, P3′=(15x2−3)/2 and P3′′=15x. In (1−x2)P3′′−2xP3′+12P3 the coefficient of x is 15+3−18=0 and the coefficient of x3 is −15−15+30=0.
Standard normalization
Definition The standard normalization of the Legendre polynomials is Pn(1)=1. It is always possible, because a nonzero polynomial solution p of the equation with λ=n(n+1) cannot vanish at x=1. Differentiating the equation m times and setting x=1 gives
p(m+1)(1)cm=cmp(m)(1),=2(m+1)(n−m)(n+m+1),
so p(1)=0 would make every derivative of p vanish at 1, and the only polynomial with that property is zero. The case m=0 also gives Pn′(1)=n(n+1)/2. This normalization fixes a value, not a size. The squared integral norm of Pn is
∫−11Pn(x)2dx=2n+12,
so the rescaled polynomials (2n+1)/2Pn are the ones with norm 1. Both scalings are in use, and a formula for expansion coefficients depends on which one is meant.
In plain words A solution can be multiplied by any constant, so a scale has to be chosen. The standard choice makes every Legendre polynomial equal 1 at x=1, which is the pole θ=0. Having the value 1 at an endpoint is a different thing from having integral size 1.
Example For P3 the normalization gave a1=−23, and then P3(1)=1, P3(−1)=−1 and P3′(1)=6=12/2. Since P32=(25x6−30x4+9x2)/4 and ∫−11x2jdx=2/(2j+1),
∫−11P32dx=41(750−12+6)=72.
So the version of norm 1 is 7/2P3, whose value at x=1 is 7/2≈1.87 rather than 1.
Orthogonality of Legendre polynomials
Definition Use the inner product ⟨f,g⟩=∫−11f(x)g(x)dx, which has weight 1. For integers m,n≥0 with m=n,
∫−11Pm(x)Pn(x)dx=0.
The reason is the self-adjoint form. Write λk=k(k+1) and B(x)=(1−x2)(PnPm′−PmPn′). Multiplying the equation for Pm by Pn, the equation for Pn by Pm, and subtracting shows that B′ equals (λn−λm)PmPn, so
(λn−λm)∫−11PmPndx=B(1)−B(−1).
Both B(1) and B(−1) are zero, because 1−x2 vanishes at the ends and the polynomials and their derivatives are finite there. Since k(k+1) is strictly increasing for k≥0, the factor λn−λm is not zero, and the integral must vanish. It follows that Pn is orthogonal to every polynomial of degree less than n. Together with the norm 2/(2n+1), orthogonality shows that if f=∑k=0NckPk, then for each n≤N
cn=22n+1∫−11f(x)Pn(x)dx.
In plain words The integral of a product measures how much two functions overlap on the interval from −1 to 1. Different Legendre polynomials have zero overlap, so the amount of each Pn in a combination can be read off with one integral, without interference from the others.
Example The product xP3(x) is (5x4−3x2)/2. With ∫−11x4dx=52 and ∫−11x2dx=32, the two terms give 5⋅52=2 and 3⋅32=2, so
∫−11xP3dx=21(2−2)=0.
For an expansion, take f(x)=x3. It is odd and of degree 3, so only P1 and P3 can appear. The formula gives c1=23∫−11x4dx=53 and c3=27∫−11x3P3dx=27⋅354=52, so
x3=53P1(x)+52P3(x),
which checks, since 53x+51(5x3−3x)=x3.
Legendre polynomials as eigenfunctions
Definition The Legendre eigenvalue problem asks for the numbers λ for which
((1−x2)y′)′+λy=0
has a nonzero solution y on −1<x<1 that stays bounded as x→1− and as x→−1+. Such a λ is an eigenvalue and such a y an eigenfunction. The eigenvalues are exactly λ=n(n+1) with n=0,1,2,…, and the eigenfunctions for λ=n(n+1) are the nonzero multiples of Pn. This is a singular Sturm-Liouville problem. The coefficient 1−x2 of the derivative term vanishes at both endpoints, the weight is 1, and the boundedness requirements take the place of boundary conditions. For λ=n(n+1), the solutions bounded near x=1 are the multiples of Pn, and Pn is bounded near x=−1 as well. For every other real λ, a standard result on the endpoint behavior of Legendre functions shows that every nonzero solution bounded near x=1 is unbounded as x→−1+, so no eigenfunction exists. The orthogonality of Pm and Pn is the usual orthogonality of eigenfunctions with different eigenvalues, and the boundary term vanishes because 1−x2 does.
In plain words Asking for a solution that is finite at both poles is only possible for the special values λ=n(n+1), and then the solution is a multiple of Pn. That is why the Legendre polynomials are the angular building blocks of axially symmetric problems on a whole sphere.
Example For λ=6 the eigenfunctions are the nonzero multiples of P2. In the angle form, Θ(θ)=P2(cosθ)=(3cos2θ−1)/2 has sinθdΘ/dθ=−3sin2θcosθ, whose derivative in θ is
3sin3θ−6sinθcos2θ=sinθ(3−9cos2θ).
Dividing by sinθ gives 3−9cos2θ=−6Θ, so the angular equation holds with λ=6, and Θ is finite at both poles. By contrast, λ=5 lies strictly between the eigenvalues 2 and 6. Neither chain of the series terminates, and no nonzero solution is bounded at both poles.
Check yourself
Use the recurrence with n=2 to construct P2, and check that it satisfies Legendre’s equation.
Show the answer
Here λ=6, and the even chain is the one that stops, so take a1=0. At k=0 the factor is (0−6)/2=−3, so a2=−3a0, and at k=2 it is (6−6)/12=0, so a4=0. The solution is a0(1−3x2), whose value at x=1 is −2a0. Setting this equal to 1 gives a0=−21, so
P2(x)=23x2−1.
With P2′=3x and P2′′=3, the left side of the equation is (1−x2)⋅3−2x⋅3x+3(3x2−1), which equals 3−3x2−6x2+9x2−3=0.
Write x2 as a combination of Legendre polynomials, computing the coefficients with orthogonality.
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Since x2 has degree 2, it is c0P0+c1P1+c2P2 with cn=22n+1∫−11x2Pndx. The first coefficient is c0=21⋅32=31, and c1=23∫−11x3dx=0 because the integrand is odd. The last one is
c2=45∫−11(3x4−x2)dx=45(56−32)=32.
So x2=31+32P2(x), and indeed 31+31(3x2−1)=x2.
Compute ∫01P1(x)P2(x)dx. Does the result contradict the orthogonality of Legendre polynomials, and which step of the proof fails on [0,1]?
Show the answer
The integral is
∫0123x3−xdx=21(43−21)=81.
There is no contradiction. Orthogonality is a statement about the interval [−1,1], where this odd integrand integrates to 0. On [0,1] the identity from the proof reads (λ2−λ1)∫01P1P2dx=B(1)−B(0) with B(x)=(1−x2)(P2P1′−P1P2′). The factor 1−x2 still makes B(1)=0, but at x=0 it equals 1, and B(0)=P2(0)⋅1−0=−21. Both sides equal 21, since 4⋅81=21, so the step that fails is the vanishing of the boundary term at the left end.
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